An older client may be at higher risk for medication toxicity due to which of the following physiological changes associated with aging?

Reduced hepatic blood ﬂow

Reduced body fat

Increased glomerular filtration rate

Increased gastric motility

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Reduced hepatic blood flow can decrease the metabolism and excretion of many drugs, requiring that doses of some drugs be decreased ². This can increase the risk of medication toxicity in older adults.
Option B is not correct because reduced body fat is not a physiological change associated with aging.
Option C is not correct because the glomerular filtration rate decreases with age ².
Option D is not correct because gastric motility decreases with age ².

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

In pharmacodynamics, receptors play a crucial role in mediating the effects of medications ¹. Medications must bind with receptors to mimic or block the actions of the body's own regulatory molecules ¹. This binding can activate or inhibit the receptor, leading to a biological response ¹.
Option B is incorrect because activation of the receptor by the medication does not necessarily cause the cell to develop a new function.
Option C is incorrect because receptors do not start the process of metabolism of the medication by the liver.
Option D is incorrect because binding a medication to a receptor does not necessarily make the medication more selective to that type of receptor.

A. A medication that causes harm to a fetus. B. A medication that causes kidney damage. C. A medication that acts in the opposite manner than expected. D. A medication that causes an additive eﬀect.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Teratogenic refers to an agent or factor that causes malformation of an embryo ¹. It is something that can interfere with normal fetal development and cause congenital disabilities ³. Drugs, alcohol, chemicals, and toxic substances are examples of teratogens ³.
Option B is not correct because teratogenic specifically refers to harm caused to a fetus, not kidney damage.
Option C is not correct because teratogenic does not refer to a medication acting in the opposite manner than expected.
Option D is not correct because teratogenic does not refer to a medication causing an additive eﬀect.

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An older client may be at higher risk for medication toxicity due to which of the following physiological changes associated with aging?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

What role do receptors play in pharmacodynamics?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A medication is described as having teratogenic side effects. The nurse understands that teratogenic is defined as which of the following?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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