A client is experiencing sickle cell crisis precipitated by a right lower lobe pneumonia. The vital signs are: HR-110/min: RR-28; B/P-96/54: T-100.8 PO: Pulse Oximetry-96%. What is the best nursing action?
Maintain IV fluid infusion and assess adequacy of hydration
Provide continuous sedation for pain relief
Insert an indwelling (Foley) catheter and monitor hourly urinary output
Prepare for endotracheal intubation and ventilatory support
The Correct Answer is A
A) Maintain IV fluid infusion and assess adequacy of hydration: This is the best nursing action as adequate hydration is crucial in managing sickle cell crisis. It helps to reduce blood viscosity and prevent further sickling of red blood cells, which is especially important in the context of pneumonia, as dehydration can exacerbate the crisis.
B) Provide continuous sedation for pain relief: While managing pain is essential, continuous sedation is not the most appropriate first step in this situation. Pain management should be addressed, but hydration and treating the underlying causes (like pneumonia) take priority.
C) Insert an indwelling (Foley) catheter and monitor hourly urinary output: While monitoring urinary output can be important, it is not the most immediate action in this case. Focus should be on hydration and addressing the sickle cell crisis rather than on urinary output at this time.
D) Prepare for endotracheal intubation and ventilatory support: Although respiratory distress is a concern with pneumonia, the current pulse oximetry reading of 96% indicates adequate oxygenation at this time. Preparing for intubation should not be the first action unless the patient shows signs of respiratory failure or severe distress.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Restraining the client to prevent self-harm: While safety is a priority, physical restraint should be a last resort and not the first action taken in this scenario. It may escalate the situation and lead to feelings of loss of control.
B. Assist the client to identify the trigger situation and choose a coping strategy: This is the best initial intervention. Helping the client understand their triggers and encouraging the development of coping strategies can empower them and promote healthier responses to distress. This approach aligns with therapeutic practices that support emotional regulation.
C. Send the client to the crisis intervention unit for 23 hours of observation: While observation may be necessary if the client is at imminent risk of self-harm, it is essential first to explore the underlying issues and coping mechanisms. This action may be considered if the client remains a danger to themselves after initial interventions.
D. Advise the client to take an anxiolytic to decrease their anxiety level: Medications may help with anxiety, but this approach does not address the root of the problem or provide the client with skills to manage their distress. It is more beneficial to focus on therapeutic techniques first.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Crackles heard at the lung bases: An S4 heart sound often indicates left ventricular hypertrophy or decreased compliance of the left ventricle, commonly seen in conditions like heart failure. Crackles in the lungs can suggest pulmonary congestion related to heart failure, making this the most relevant correlation.
B. Dorsalis pedis pulses +1: A weak pulse may indicate peripheral vascular issues, but it doesn't directly correlate with an S4 heart sound.
C. A pericardial friction rub: This is associated with pericarditis and not directly related to the S4 heart sound.
D. Heart rate 50 beats per minute: While bradycardia may be present in various cardiac conditions, it does not specifically correlate with the S4 sound, which is more about ventricular filling pressures.
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