A client is prescribed levothyroxine 200 mcg PO daily before breakfast. In the medication room are tablets labelled 0.05 mg/tablet. How many tablet(s) will you administer to the client? Fill in the blank with a numeric value. Answer to the nearest whole tablet
The Correct Answer is ["4"]
Convert micrograms (mcg) to milligrams (mg):
The prescribed dose is 200 mcg.
We know that 1 mg = 1000 mcg.
Therefore, 200 mcg = 200 / 1000 = 0.2 mg.
Calculate the number of tablets:
Each tablet contains 0.05 mg of levothyroxine.
The desired dose is 0.2 mg.
We can use the following formula: (Desired dose) / (Tablet strength) = Number of tablets
(0.2 mg) / (0.05 mg/tablet) = 4 tablets
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Lying flat on the back: Positioning the client flat on their back is not the most effective position for administering a rectal suppository. The correct position allows for easier insertion and proper absorption of the medication. Lying flat on the back may make it difficult for the nurse to administer the suppository in the correct manner.
B) Lying flat on the stomach: Lying flat on the stomach is not recommended for the administration of a rectal suppository, as it can be uncomfortable for the client and can impede the ability to access the rectal area. The side-lying position is more effective for both client comfort and proper placement of the suppository.
C) Left side-lying: The left side-lying position, often referred to as the Sims' position, is the most appropriate for administering a rectal suppository. This position helps to expose the rectal area, allows for easier insertion, and promotes the suppository’s absorption, as gravity can assist in its positioning within the rectum.
D) Right side-lying: The right side-lying position is not as effective as the left side-lying position for the administration of a rectal suppository. The left-side position helps to ensure the smooth placement of the suppository and promotes its absorption. Therefore, the right side is not the optimal choice.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Opioid drugs are highly addictive, and the healthcare provider is concerned you will become addicted: While it is true that opioids have the potential for addiction, this response does not address the actual reason for the difference in morphine dosages. The provider's decision is likely based on the pharmacokinetics of the drug rather than a concern about addiction. This response could create unnecessary concern for the client and does not explain the dose discrepancy.
B) Morphine is highly bound to protein in your blood, and you are at risk for toxicity due to surgery: While morphine is protein-bound, the primary reason for the difference in the intravenous (IV) dose is not related to protein binding. The main difference is related to the route of administration and how the body processes the drug. The nurse should provide a more accurate explanation regarding the absorption and metabolism of morphine rather than focusing on protein binding or potential toxicity.
C) "Morphine taken by mouth passes through the liver, and some of the medication is made inactive": This is the best response. When morphine is taken orally, it is absorbed into the bloodstream and passes through the liver before reaching systemic circulation, a process known as the "first-pass effect." During this process, a portion of the drug is metabolized and rendered inactive, meaning that a higher oral dose is required to achieve the desired effect. When morphine is administered intravenously, it bypasses the liver and directly enters the bloodstream, leading to a more immediate and potent effect, which is why a lower dose is needed.
D) "The healthcare provider is cautious with opioids and starts low and adjusts the dose up as needed": While this is a valid approach to opioid prescribing, it doesn't fully explain why the client is receiving a smaller dose intravenously. The reason for the dose difference is based on the route of administration and the pharmacokinetic properties of the drug, not just a general cautious approach. This answer doesn't provide a clear explanation of why the IV dose is smaller.
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