The healthcare provider has ordered 5 mg morphine intravenously for pain control. At home, the client takes 30mg of morphine sulfate by mouth twice daily. The client asks the nurse why they are receiving such a small dose. What is the best response by the nurse?
Opioid drugs are highly addictive, and the healthcare provider concerned you will become addicted.
Morphine highly bound to protein in your blood and you are at risk for toxicity due to surgery.
"Morphine taken by mouth pass through the liver and some of the medication is made inactive."
The healthcare provider is cautious with opioids and starts low adjusts the dose up as needed.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Opioid drugs are highly addictive, and the healthcare provider is concerned you will become addicted: While it is true that opioids have the potential for addiction, this response does not address the actual reason for the difference in morphine dosages. The provider's decision is likely based on the pharmacokinetics of the drug rather than a concern about addiction. This response could create unnecessary concern for the client and does not explain the dose discrepancy.
B) Morphine is highly bound to protein in your blood, and you are at risk for toxicity due to surgery: While morphine is protein-bound, the primary reason for the difference in the intravenous (IV) dose is not related to protein binding. The main difference is related to the route of administration and how the body processes the drug. The nurse should provide a more accurate explanation regarding the absorption and metabolism of morphine rather than focusing on protein binding or potential toxicity.
C) "Morphine taken by mouth passes through the liver, and some of the medication is made inactive": This is the best response. When morphine is taken orally, it is absorbed into the bloodstream and passes through the liver before reaching systemic circulation, a process known as the "first-pass effect." During this process, a portion of the drug is metabolized and rendered inactive, meaning that a higher oral dose is required to achieve the desired effect. When morphine is administered intravenously, it bypasses the liver and directly enters the bloodstream, leading to a more immediate and potent effect, which is why a lower dose is needed.
D) "The healthcare provider is cautious with opioids and starts low and adjusts the dose up as needed": While this is a valid approach to opioid prescribing, it doesn't fully explain why the client is receiving a smaller dose intravenously. The reason for the dose difference is based on the route of administration and the pharmacokinetic properties of the drug, not just a general cautious approach. This answer doesn't provide a clear explanation of why the IV dose is smaller.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) The nurse formulates a goal "The client will be free from infection for the duration of the hospitalization": This action reflects the planning phase of the nursing process. The planning phase involves setting goals and determining the best interventions to achieve the desired outcomes for the client. In this case, the goal is to prevent infection, which is a specific, measurable outcome that can guide further interventions.
B) The nurse assesses the client's white blood cell count: Assessing the client's white blood cell count is an important step in data collection, which is part of the assessment phase of the nursing process. It helps the nurse gather information about the client's current health status but is not a planning activity. The nurse would use the information from the assessment phase to formulate goals and plan interventions.
C) The nurse administers the ordered oral antibiotics: Administering antibiotics is an action related to the implementation phase of the nursing process. The implementation phase involves carrying out the planned interventions. In this case, the administration of antibiotics is a direct action taken to address the risk for infection, but it is not the planning phase.
D) The nurse teaches the client the appropriate hand washing technique: Teaching hand hygiene is an important intervention, but it falls under the implementation phase of the nursing process. It involves educating the client to help prevent infection, which is an action taken based on the goals and plan developed earlier. While important, it’s not the planning phase itself.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Low albumin: This factor has the most impact on the pharmacokinetic phase of distribution. Albumin is a key protein in the blood that binds to many medications. When albumin levels are low, fewer drug molecules will be bound, leading to an increased concentration of free (unbound) drug in the bloodstream. This can result in enhanced drug effects or toxicity, as the unbound drug is pharmacologically active and more readily able to cross cell membranes.
B) Renal disease: While renal disease can impact drug elimination and excretion, it does not have as direct an effect on the distribution phase of pharmacokinetics. Renal function primarily affects the clearance of drugs from the body rather than how the drug is distributed within the tissues.
C) Hepatic disease: Hepatic disease can affect the metabolism of drugs and their clearance, but it does not directly affect the distribution phase. While the liver is involved in metabolizing drugs, it is the ability to clear or process the drug that is most influenced, rather than its distribution to tissues.
D) An elevated gastric pH: Elevated gastric pH (which can occur with antacid use or in certain conditions) can affect the absorption of some medications but has minimal direct impact on the distribution phase of pharmacokinetics. Distribution is primarily concerned with how a drug moves from the bloodstream into tissues, and this is more influenced by factors like blood flow, protein binding, and the drug's lipophilicity, rather than the pH of the stomach.
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