The healthcare provider has ordered 5 mg morphine intravenously for pain control. At home, the client takes 30mg of morphine sulfate by mouth twice daily. The client asks the nurse why they are receiving such a small dose. What is the best response by the nurse?

Opioid drugs are highly addictive, and the healthcare provider concerned you will become addicted.

Morphine highly bound to protein in your blood and you are at risk for toxicity due to surgery.

"Morphine taken by mouth pass through the liver and some of the medication is made inactive."

The healthcare provider is cautious with opioids and starts low adjusts the dose up as needed.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) Opioid drugs are highly addictive, and the healthcare provider is concerned you will become addicted: While it is true that opioids have the potential for addiction, this response does not address the actual reason for the difference in morphine dosages. The provider's decision is likely based on the pharmacokinetics of the drug rather than a concern about addiction. This response could create unnecessary concern for the client and does not explain the dose discrepancy.

B) Morphine is highly bound to protein in your blood, and you are at risk for toxicity due to surgery: While morphine is protein-bound, the primary reason for the difference in the intravenous (IV) dose is not related to protein binding. The main difference is related to the route of administration and how the body processes the drug. The nurse should provide a more accurate explanation regarding the absorption and metabolism of morphine rather than focusing on protein binding or potential toxicity.

C) "Morphine taken by mouth passes through the liver, and some of the medication is made inactive": This is the best response. When morphine is taken orally, it is absorbed into the bloodstream and passes through the liver before reaching systemic circulation, a process known as the "first-pass effect." During this process, a portion of the drug is metabolized and rendered inactive, meaning that a higher oral dose is required to achieve the desired effect. When morphine is administered intravenously, it bypasses the liver and directly enters the bloodstream, leading to a more immediate and potent effect, which is why a lower dose is needed.

D) "The healthcare provider is cautious with opioids and starts low and adjusts the dose up as needed": While this is a valid approach to opioid prescribing, it doesn't fully explain why the client is receiving a smaller dose intravenously. The reason for the dose difference is based on the route of administration and the pharmacokinetic properties of the drug, not just a general cautious approach. This answer doesn't provide a clear explanation of why the IV dose is smaller.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Lying flat on the back: Positioning the client flat on their back is not the most effective position for administering a rectal suppository. The correct position allows for easier insertion and proper absorption of the medication. Lying flat on the back may make it difficult for the nurse to administer the suppository in the correct manner.

B) Lying flat on the stomach: Lying flat on the stomach is not recommended for the administration of a rectal suppository, as it can be uncomfortable for the client and can impede the ability to access the rectal area. The side-lying position is more effective for both client comfort and proper placement of the suppository.

C) Left side-lying: The left side-lying position, often referred to as the Sims' position, is the most appropriate for administering a rectal suppository. This position helps to expose the rectal area, allows for easier insertion, and promotes the suppository’s absorption, as gravity can assist in its positioning within the rectum.

D) Right side-lying: The right side-lying position is not as effective as the left side-lying position for the administration of a rectal suppository. The left-side position helps to ensure the smooth placement of the suppository and promotes its absorption. Therefore, the right side is not the optimal choice.

A. Cerebral Vascular Accident B. Depression C. Glaucoma D. Congestive Heart Failure

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Cerebral Vascular Accident (CVA): While a history of a CVA (stroke) is important to consider when prescribing medications, ondansetron is not contraindicated for clients with a history of CVA. The nurse would need to assess the client’s overall neurological status and risk factors but this condition is not an immediate concern for ondansetron use.

B) Depression: Ondansetron is not typically contraindicated in patients with depression. However, the nurse should be mindful of the potential for interactions with other medications the client may be taking for depression, but there is no direct contraindication between ondansetron and depression itself.

C) Glaucoma: This is the most concerning finding. Ondansetron can increase the risk of complications in clients with glaucoma, particularly narrow-angle glaucoma. Ondansetron has some serotonin receptor-blocking properties that can cause dilation of the pupil, which could increase intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma. Therefore, this condition would require careful monitoring, and the nurse would need to consult with the healthcare provider before administering ondansetron to a client with glaucoma.

D) Congestive Heart Failure (CHF): While patients with CHF need to be monitored for fluid balance, ondansetron is not contraindicated in clients with CHF. The primary concern in these patients would be potential fluid retention or electrolyte imbalances, but this is generally not a direct concern for the administration of ondansetron itself.

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The healthcare provider has ordered 5 mg morphine intravenously for pain control. At home, the client takes 30mg of morphine sulfate by mouth twice daily. The client asks the nurse why they are receiving such a small dose. What is the best response by the nurse?

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Explanation

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