The healthcare provider has ordered 5 mg morphine intravenously for pain control. At home, the client takes 30mg of morphine sulfate by mouth twice daily. The client asks the nurse why they are receiving such a small dose. What is the best response by the nurse?
Opioid drugs are highly addictive, and the healthcare provider concerned you will become addicted.
Morphine highly bound to protein in your blood and you are at risk for toxicity due to surgery.
"Morphine taken by mouth pass through the liver and some of the medication is made inactive."
The healthcare provider is cautious with opioids and starts low adjusts the dose up as needed.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Opioid drugs are highly addictive, and the healthcare provider is concerned you will become addicted: While it is true that opioids have the potential for addiction, this response does not address the actual reason for the difference in morphine dosages. The provider's decision is likely based on the pharmacokinetics of the drug rather than a concern about addiction. This response could create unnecessary concern for the client and does not explain the dose discrepancy.
B) Morphine is highly bound to protein in your blood, and you are at risk for toxicity due to surgery: While morphine is protein-bound, the primary reason for the difference in the intravenous (IV) dose is not related to protein binding. The main difference is related to the route of administration and how the body processes the drug. The nurse should provide a more accurate explanation regarding the absorption and metabolism of morphine rather than focusing on protein binding or potential toxicity.
C) "Morphine taken by mouth passes through the liver, and some of the medication is made inactive": This is the best response. When morphine is taken orally, it is absorbed into the bloodstream and passes through the liver before reaching systemic circulation, a process known as the "first-pass effect." During this process, a portion of the drug is metabolized and rendered inactive, meaning that a higher oral dose is required to achieve the desired effect. When morphine is administered intravenously, it bypasses the liver and directly enters the bloodstream, leading to a more immediate and potent effect, which is why a lower dose is needed.
D) "The healthcare provider is cautious with opioids and starts low and adjusts the dose up as needed": While this is a valid approach to opioid prescribing, it doesn't fully explain why the client is receiving a smaller dose intravenously. The reason for the dose difference is based on the route of administration and the pharmacokinetic properties of the drug, not just a general cautious approach. This answer doesn't provide a clear explanation of why the IV dose is smaller.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Cerebral Vascular Accident (CVA): While a history of a CVA (stroke) is important to consider when prescribing medications, ondansetron is not contraindicated for clients with a history of CVA. The nurse would need to assess the client’s overall neurological status and risk factors but this condition is not an immediate concern for ondansetron use.
B) Depression: Ondansetron is not typically contraindicated in patients with depression. However, the nurse should be mindful of the potential for interactions with other medications the client may be taking for depression, but there is no direct contraindication between ondansetron and depression itself.
C) Glaucoma: This is the most concerning finding. Ondansetron can increase the risk of complications in clients with glaucoma, particularly narrow-angle glaucoma. Ondansetron has some serotonin receptor-blocking properties that can cause dilation of the pupil, which could increase intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma. Therefore, this condition would require careful monitoring, and the nurse would need to consult with the healthcare provider before administering ondansetron to a client with glaucoma.
D) Congestive Heart Failure (CHF): While patients with CHF need to be monitored for fluid balance, ondansetron is not contraindicated in clients with CHF. The primary concern in these patients would be potential fluid retention or electrolyte imbalances, but this is generally not a direct concern for the administration of ondansetron itself.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Ask the client what prescribed medications are taken at home: While obtaining information about the client's home medications is important, this action does not address the specific issue of the unclear order. It is not an appropriate substitute for clarifying the medication order that the nurse is having difficulty transcribing.
B) Contact the prescriber to clarify the order: This is the best action for the nurse to take. If the nurse is unsure about the order due to illegible handwriting, the safest and most effective way to clarify the order is to directly contact the prescriber. This ensures that the nurse administers the correct medication and dose, reducing the risk of medication errors.
C) Wait until the prescriber makes rounds again to clarify the order: Waiting for the prescriber to make rounds is not an appropriate or timely solution. Medication administration should not be delayed due to unclear orders, as it could lead to treatment delays or potential harm to the patient. Immediate clarification is necessary.
D) Ask a colleague what the order says: While consulting a colleague might be helpful, it is not the most reliable or safe course of action. The nurse should not rely on others to interpret unclear orders, as there may be different interpretations or misunderstandings. Contacting the prescriber directly ensures the order is clarified accurately and safely.
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