A client is prescribed Metronidazole for a chlamydia infection. What statement made by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
"I can have a glass of wine or two while taking this medication."
"I might get a funny metal taste in my mouth while taking this drug."
"This medication is an antibiotic used to treat the bacterial infection I have."
"I should take the full prescription to get rid of this infection."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "I can have a glass of wine or two while taking this medication.": Metronidazole causes a severe disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol. Clients should avoid all alcohol-containing products during treatment and for at least 48 hours after the last dose.
B. "I might get a funny metal taste in my mouth while taking this drug.": A metallic taste is a common and harmless side effect of metronidazole. The nurse should reassure the client that this reaction is temporary and does not indicate an allergy or toxicity.
C. "This medication is an antibiotic used to treat the bacterial infection I have.": This is an accurate understanding of metronidazole’s purpose. It is an effective antimicrobial used for bacterial and protozoal infections, including some sexually transmitted infections.
D. "I should take the full prescription to get rid of this infection.": Completing the full course of metronidazole is essential to ensure eradication of the infection and prevent antibiotic resistance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Gram-negative bacteria have a thinner peptidoglycan layer compared to Gram-positive bacteria. The thicker peptidoglycan of Gram-positive bacteria is more easily targeted by certain antibiotics like penicillin.
B. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides, which acts as a barrier to many antibiotics. This structural complexity often necessitates the use of antibiotics that can penetrate the outer membrane or have mechanisms to bypass this barrier.
C. Gram-negative bacteria are more prone to developing antibiotic resistance due to their outer membrane and efflux pumps. This complicates treatment decisions rather than simplifying them, requiring vigilance in antibiotic selection and monitoring.
D. While Gram-negative bacteria do have a thinner peptidoglycan layer, their outer membrane protects them from many antibiotics, so they are not inherently more susceptible. Treatment must consider this additional barrier to ensure efficacy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hydroxychloroquine.: Hydroxychloroquine is an antimalarial and anti-inflammatory medication used in conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and lupus. It has no antifungal properties and would not be effective for treating oral candidiasis (thrush).
B. Warfarin.: Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent or treat thromboembolic disorders. It has no role in managing fungal infections and could even pose risks if given unnecessarily, such as increased bleeding tendency.
C. Nystatin.: Nystatin is an antifungal medication commonly prescribed for oral candidiasis, especially after prolonged antibiotic use that disrupts normal oral flora. It is typically administered as an oral suspension that the client swishes in the mouth and then swallows to eliminate the fungal overgrowth.
D. Ondansetron.: Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy, radiation, or surgery. It has no antifungal action and would not address the white oral lesions caused by Candida infection.
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