A client is receiving IV fluids at 150 mL/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing fluid overload?
Oliguria
Bradycardia
Dyspnea
Poor skin turgor
The Correct Answer is C
A. Oliguria. This is incorrect because oliguria, or decreased urine output, is a sign of fluid volume deficit, not fluid volume overload.
B. Bradycardia. This is incorrect because bradycardia, or slow heart rate, is not a typical sign of fluid volume overload, unless the client has a cardiac condition that affects the heart's response to fluid overload.
C. Dyspnea. This is correct because dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a common sign of fluid volume overload, as excess fluid accumulates in the lungs and impairs gas exchange.
D. Poor skin turgor. This is incorrect because poor skin turgor, or decreased elasticity of the skin, is a sign of dehydration, not fluid volume overload.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason
Re-evaluate the client for an ET cuff leak is not appropriate. While an ET cuff leak could contribute to respiratory distress, the immediate concern is the high-pressure alarm, which indicates increased resistance to airflow. The nurse should address the alarm first and then assess for other potential causes, including an ET cuff leak.
Choice B reason:
Option B: Assess for disconnected tubing is not appropriate. A disconnected tubing is also a potential cause of the high-pressure alarm. However, before checking for disconnected tubing, the nurse should first deliver manual breaths with a resuscitation bag to provide the client with adequate ventilation.
Choice C reason:
Decrease the ventilator flow rate is not appropriate. Decreasing the ventilator flow rate might not be the appropriate action in this situation, as the high-pressure alarm indicates increased resistance, which might require increased flow to overcome. Additionally, the nurse should not delay taking immediate action by adjusting ventilator settings without knowing the specific cause of the high-pressure alarm.
Choice D reason:
When the high-pressure alarm is beeping, and the client is experiencing respiratory distress, it indicates that there is an increased resistance to airflow within the ventilator circuit or the client's airway. This can be a life-threatening situation, and immediate action is required.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
A. Postpartum hemorrhage is incorrect because the client has scant lochia rubra and a firm fundus at the umbilicus, which indicate normal uterine involution and bleeding.
B. Seizures is correct because the client has signs of severe preeclampsia, such as headache, blurred vision, nausea, hyperreflexia, and clonus. These are indications of increased intracranial pressure and cerebral edema, which can lead to seizures or eclampsia.
C. Hyperglycemia is incorrect because there is no evidence of diabetes mellitus or gestational diabetes in the client's history or findings.
D. Hypoxemia is incorrect because there is no evidence of respiratory distress or impaired gas exchange in the client's history or findings.
E. Infection is incorrect because the client has no signs of infection, such as fever, malaise, foul-smelling lochia, or elevated WBC count.
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