A client is receiving IV fluids at 150 mL/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing fluid overload?

Oliguria

Bradycardia

Dyspnea

Poor skin turgor

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Oliguria. This is incorrect because oliguria, or decreased urine output, is a sign of fluid volume deficit, not fluid volume overload.

B. Bradycardia. This is incorrect because bradycardia, or slow heart rate, is not a typical sign of fluid volume overload, unless the client has a cardiac condition that affects the heart's response to fluid overload.

C. Dyspnea. This is correct because dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a common sign of fluid volume overload, as excess fluid accumulates in the lungs and impairs gas exchange.

D. Poor skin turgor. This is incorrect because poor skin turgor, or decreased elasticity of the skin, is a sign of dehydration, not fluid volume overload.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Obesity is not a risk factor for osteoporosis. In fact, obesity may have a protective effect on bone density due to increased mechanical loading and higher levels of estrogen in adipose tissue.

B. Acromegaly is not a risk factor for osteoporosis. Acromegaly is a condition caused by excess growth hormone, which leads to increased bone formation and remodeling.

C. Estrogen replacement therapy is not a risk factor for osteoporosis. Estrogen replacement therapy can help prevent bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures in postmenopausal women with low estrogen levels.

D. Sedentary lifestyle is a risk factor for osteoporosis. Sedentary lifestyle reduces physical activity and muscle strength, which decreases bone stimulation and increases bone resorption.

A. A client who is receiving verapamil and has a continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) B. A client who is taking phenytoin and is requesting a milkshake C. A client who is receiving a diet high in potassium-rich foods and furosemide by mouth D. A client who is receiving an MAOI and is requesting a cheeseburger for dinner

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. This choice is incorrect because verapamil and TPN do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can lower blood pressure and heart rate, while TPN is a form of intravenous nutrition that provides calories, electrolytes, vitamins, and minerals. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and blood glucose levels, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.

B. This choice is incorrect because phenytoin and milkshakes do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant that can decrease the absorption of some vitamins, such as folic acid and vitamin D, but milkshakes are not a major source of these nutrients. The nurse should encourage the client to eat a balanced diet and take supplements as prescribed, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.

C. This choice is incorrect because potassium-rich foods and furosemide do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, but potassium-rich foods can help prevent this complication. The nurse should monitor the client's electrolyte levels and fluid balance, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.

D. This choice is correct because MAOIs and cheeseburgers have a significant food and medication interaction. MAOIs are antidepressants that can cause hypertensive crisis, or dangerously high blood pressure, if the client consumes foods that contain tyramine, such as aged cheeses, cured meats, fermented foods, and beer. The nurse should intervene to prevent the client from eating a cheeseburger and educate the client about avoiding tyramine-containing foods while taking MAOIs.

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A client is receiving IV fluids at 150 mL/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing fluid overload?

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