A nurse is caring for a client who has bulimia nervosa.
The client is at risk for developing
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Cardiovascular abnormalities are a serious risk in clients with bulimia nervosa due to electrolyte imbalances, especially hypokalemia, which can lead to arrhythmias, weakened heart muscles, and potential heart failure. Hyponatremia (low sodium levels) can occur due to excessive vomiting, which leads to the loss of fluids and electrolytes, including sodium. Incorrect responses: Group 1: Hypoglycemia: Bulimia nervosa primarily causes electrolyte imbalances and acid-base disturbances due to vomiting, not significant alterations in blood sugar levels. Metabolic Acidosis: Vomiting leads to the loss of gastric acid, causing metabolic alkalosis. Hypotension: Hypotension could occur if the client experiences significant dehydration from vomiting. Hypotension would be a consequence of severe dehydration rather than a primary risk at this stage. Hyperglycemia: Hyperglycemia is not typically associated with bulimia nervosa or vomiting. It would be more relevant in conditions like diabetes. Group 2: Hyperkalemia: Hyperkalemia (high potassium) is unlikely in bulimia nervosa, where frequent vomiting usually leads to hypokalemia due to the loss of potassium in gastric secretions. Metabolic Acidosis: As mentioned before, vomiting leads to metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis, because of the loss of hydrochloric acid. Hypochloremia: Hypochloremia (low chloride levels) can occur with vomiting due to the loss of stomach acid, which contains chloride. While it is a possible outcome, metabolic alkalosis better captures the overall acid-base disturbance in the client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["18"]
Explanation
The client weighs 198 lb, which is equivalent to (198 ÷ 2.2 = 90kg.
Therefore, the amount of mannitol for the test dose is 0.2 g/kg x 90 kg = 18 g.
The nurse should administer 18 g of mannitol IV bolus over 5 min as a test dose to the client who has severe oliguria.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The frequency in which the client presses the call button is not a priority for the change-of-shift report, as it does not indicate the level of pain or comfort of the client. This choice is incorrect.
B. The client's most recent ventilator settings are not applicable, as the client was weaned from mechanical ventilation and no longer requires it. This choice is incorrect.
C. The time of the client's last dose of pain medication is important for the change-of-shift report, as it helps to ensure continuity of care and prevent under- or over-medication of the client. This choice is correct.
D. The last time the provider evaluated the client is not relevant for the change-of-shift report, as it does not reflect the current status of the client. This choice is incorrect.
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