A client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is experiencing increased thirst. Which physiologic mechanism must take place to control this manifestation?

Maintain a normal amount of circulating antidiuretic hormone.

Increase the client’s serum osmolarity.

Increase the excretion of acetone in the client’s urine.

Control the client’s blood glucose levels.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Normal antidiuretic hormone levels regulate water balance but do not address thirst in diabetes mellitus, which is caused by hyperglycemia-induced osmotic diuresis. Controlling blood glucose corrects the osmotic imbalance driving thirst, making ADH maintenance less relevant and incorrect for this manifestation’s control.

Choice B reason: Increasing serum osmolarity would worsen thirst, as high osmolarity from hyperglycemia causes dehydration and polydipsia. The goal is to reduce osmolarity by controlling blood glucose, which mitigates osmotic diuresis. This choice is incorrect, as it exacerbates the mechanism driving the client’s symptom.

Choice C reason: Increased acetone excretion occurs in diabetic ketoacidosis, not directly related to thirst in new diabetes mellitus. Thirst results from hyperglycemia causing osmotic diuresis. Controlling glucose levels addresses the root cause, making acetone excretion irrelevant and incorrect for managing polydipsia in this client.

Choice D reason: Increased thirst in diabetes mellitus results from hyperglycemia causing osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Controlling blood glucose levels reduces serum osmolarity, preventing fluid loss and alleviating thirst. This is the primary physiologic mechanism, supported by endocrinology evidence for managing diabetes-related polydipsia effectively.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Artificial sweeteners do not directly contribute to diabetic nephropathy. Nephropathy results from chronic hyperglycemia damaging glomerular vessels. Sweeteners may affect diet but lack evidence linking them to renal damage, making this incorrect compared to elevated HbA1c, the primary driver of diabetic complications.

Choice B reason: Frequent hypoglycemia may cause acute symptoms but does not directly cause nephropathy. Chronic hyperglycemia, reflected by high HbA1c, damages renal glomeruli, leading to nephropathy. Hypoglycemia is a treatment complication, not a risk factor for renal damage, making this an incorrect choice.

Choice C reason: Moderate alcohol consumption may affect overall health but is not a primary risk factor for diabetic nephropathy. Chronic hyperglycemia, indicated by elevated HbA1c, drives glomerular damage. Alcohol’s impact is less direct, making this incorrect compared to the established link between poor glycemic control and nephropathy.

Choice D reason: Consistently elevated HbA1c reflects chronic hyperglycemia, the primary cause of diabetic nephropathy. High glucose levels damage glomerular capillaries, leading to proteinuria and renal decline. This is a well-established risk factor, supported by endocrinology evidence, making it the correct choice for increased nephropathy risk.

A. Staphylococcus aureus abscess around a hair follicle. B. Insect or spider bite that becomes infected. C. Inadequate blood supply to the area. D. Sexual contact with an infected partner.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: A furuncle is a painful abscess caused by Staphylococcus aureus infecting a hair follicle, leading to purulent, tender nodules. This bacterial etiology is the primary risk factor, as S. aureus colonizes skin and invades follicles, causing localized infection. This aligns with dermatological pathology for furuncle development.

Choice B reason: Insect or spider bites may cause secondary infections but are not the primary etiology of furuncles. Furuncles specifically result from S. aureus folliculitis. Bites cause different lesions, like cellulitis, making this incorrect for the typical pathological process leading to a furuncle’s formation.

Choice C reason: Inadequate blood supply may impair healing but does not directly cause furuncles. S. aureus infection of hair follicles is the primary etiology. Poor perfusion is a risk for chronic wounds, not acute folliculitis, making this incorrect for the pathological etiology of a furuncle.

Choice D reason: Sexual contact with an infected partner may transmit STDs but is unrelated to furuncles, which are caused by S. aureus skin infections. Furuncles are not sexually transmitted, making this incorrect, as the etiology is bacterial colonization of hair follicles, not interpersonal transmission.

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A client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is experiencing increased thirst. Which physiologic mechanism must take place to control this manifestation?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which factor in the history of a client with diabetes mellitus increases the client’s risk for nephropathy?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is assessing a client’s skin and notices a raised nodule on the right forearm that is tender and filled with purulent secretions. The healthcare provider (HCP) diagnosed the abscess as a furuncle. Which pathological etiology places the client at risk for the development of a furuncle?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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