A client on a mental health unit develops flu-like symptoms and low blood pressure. After reviewing the client's history, it was noted that the client has a diagnosis of schizophrenia and is currently taking risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse should recognize that which of the following adverse effects may be occurring?
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Tardive dyskinesia.
Acute dystonia.
Pseudoparkinsonism.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur as a severe adverse effect of antipsychotic medications, such as risperidone (Risperdal). Symptoms of NMS include flu-like symptoms (fever, muscle rigidity, and sweating) along with altered mental status, and autonomic dysregulation. It's crucial for the nurse to recognize this potentially fatal condition promptly and intervene appropriately.
Choice B rationale:
Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder that is often a result of long-term use of antipsychotic medications, but it is characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements of the face and other body parts. It doesn't typically present with flu-like symptoms or low blood pressure.
Choice C rationale:
Acute dystonia is characterized by involuntary muscle contractions and spasms, often involving the muscles of the face, neck, and back. It usually occurs shortly after starting antipsychotic treatment. While it can cause discomfort, it doesn't present with flu-like symptoms and low blood pressure as described in the scenario.
Choice D rationale:
Pseudoparkinsonism, also known as drug-induced parkinsonism, is characterized by symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremors, bradykinesia (slowness of movement), and rigidity. It doesn't typically cause flu-like symptoms and low blood pressure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice B.
Choice A rationale: Phase IV is not a recognized phase in the cycle of battering. Typically, the cycle of battering consists of three phases: tension-building, acute battering, and honeymoon phase. Each phase has distinct characteristics.
Choice B rationale: Phase I, the tension-building phase, is characterized by increased tension, irritability, and frustration in the abuser. The victim may sense the abuser's declining tolerance for frustration, leading them to try to avoid confrontation by staying out of the abuser's way.
Choice C rationale: Phase III is the honeymoon phase, where the abuser may apologize, show remorse, and be affectionate. The victim may feel hopeful for change. However, this does not match the described behavior of increasing frustration and anger with quick apologies.
Choice D rationale: This is a duplicate of Choice B. As previously stated, Phase I, the tension-building phase, involves the buildup of tension and irritability in the abuser, leading the victim to try to stay out of the abuser's way to avoid conflict.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choiced. "So, it seems that you feel responsible for what happened to your mother.”
Choice A rationale:This response attempts to reassure the son but may come off as dismissive of his feelings. It does not encourage further discussion or exploration of his emotions.
Choice B rationale:This response is overly reassuring and dismisses the son’s feelings of guilt. It does not address his emotional state or encourage him to express his concerns.
Choice C rationale:This response questions the son’s feelings directly, which might make him defensive. It does not validate his emotions or encourage him to talk more about his feelings.
Choice D rationale:This response acknowledges the son’s feelings and encourages him to express his emotions. It is a therapeutic communication technique that helps the son feel heard and understood, which is crucial in providing emotional support.
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