A client on glipizide, a sulfonylurea, reports to the nurse feeling anxious, sweaty & has a headache. The nurse's initial action is to:
take vital signs.
administer 1 mg glucagon subcutaneously.
obtain a blood glucose reading.
notify the physician.
The Correct Answer is C
A. While taking vital signs can provide useful information about the client's overall condition, it does not address the immediate concern of potential hypoglycemia. The priority is to assess blood glucose levels directly.
B. Glucagon can be administered in cases of severe hypoglycemia where the patient is unable to ingest glucose orally. However, before administering glucagon, the nurse should first check the blood glucose level to confirm hypoglycemia.
C. Checking the blood glucose level will provide immediate information about whether the client is experiencing hypoglycemia. If the blood glucose is low, appropriate treatment (such as administering glucose or a fast-acting carbohydrate) can be initiated. If it’s within normal limits, other causes for the symptoms can be explored.
D. While it may be necessary to notify the physician depending on the outcome of the blood glucose reading or if the client’s condition worsens, it is not the first action. Immediate assessment of the blood glucose level is essential to determine the correct course of action.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Teaching the client about maintaining a healthy weight is crucial, especially in preventing the progression from prediabetes to type 2 diabetes. Weight management through diet and exercise can significantly improve insulin sensitivity and glucose control.
B. At a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL, the client is not typically at the stage where insulin therapy is necessary. Insulin is usually reserved for individuals with established diabetes, particularly if they are unable to achieve glycemic control through lifestyle changes or oral medications.
C. Similar to option B, the use of oral hypoglycemic agents is not indicated for someone with a fasting glucose of 120 mg/dL. This level suggests prediabetes, and the initial approach is generally focused on lifestyle changes rather than medication.
D. While self-monitoring of blood glucose is important for individuals with diabetes, it may not be the immediate focus for a client with a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL unless the physician has indicated a diagnosis of diabetes or if the client has symptoms. In prediabetes, education around lifestyle modifications is typically prioritized.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Infections, including urinary tract infections, can increase insulin resistance and elevate blood glucose levels, potentially leading to DKA. The stress response from infection can also increase cortisol levels, further contributing to hyperglycemia.
B. Decreased caloric intake can lead to inadequate insulin levels relative to the body’s needs. In Type 1 diabetes, if insulin is not sufficient to metabolize glucose (due to low intake or other reasons), the body may resort to fat metabolism, leading to the production of ketones and the development of DKA.
C. While exercise can affect blood glucose levels, it typically lowers them and is not a direct cause of DKA. In fact, moderate aerobic exercise is usually encouraged for managing diabetes. However, if blood glucose levels are already high before exercise, it may exacerbate the situation, but aerobic exercise itself is not a cause of DKA.
D. Clogged tubing can prevent insulin delivery, leading to insufficient insulin levels. This lack of insulin can result in elevated blood glucose levels and, ultimately, the risk of DKA if not addressed.
E. Not taking enough insulin is a primary cause of DKA in Type 1 diabetes. Without adequate insulin, the body cannot utilize glucose properly, leading to increased fat metabolism and the production of ketones, which can cause DKA.
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