A client presents in the emergency department with joint pain. Which condition would be least likely to cause this symptom?
Osteoporosis
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Osteoporosis causes bone density loss, leading to fractures, not primary joint pain. Pain occurs secondary to fractures, not joint inflammation or degeneration. This condition is the least likely to cause joint pain directly, as its pathology focuses on bone fragility rather than synovial or cartilage issues.
Choice B reason: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) causes joint pain due to autoimmune-mediated synovitis, affecting multiple joints symmetrically. Inflammatory cytokines drive pain and swelling, making SLE a common cause of joint pain, unlike osteoporosis, which primarily affects bone structure without direct joint involvement.
Choice C reason: Osteoarthritis causes joint pain due to cartilage degeneration and bone-on-bone friction, particularly in weight-bearing joints like knees. Mechanical stress and inflammation contribute to chronic pain, making osteoarthritis a frequent cause of joint pain, unlike osteoporosis, which lacks primary joint pathology.
Choice D reason: Rheumatoid arthritis causes significant joint pain through autoimmune synovial inflammation, leading to swelling, stiffness, and cartilage damage. This systemic condition affects multiple joints, making it a primary cause of joint pain, unlike osteoporosis, which is associated with bone loss, not joint inflammation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: PPIs are used for short-term treatment of ulcers and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), typically 4-8 weeks, not long-term, due to risks like nutrient deficiencies or infections. Long-term use is reserved for specific conditions like Barrett’s esophagus, making this statement inaccurate for general use.
Choice B reason: While PPIs are available orally and intravenously, this is not the primary focus of patient education. Their efficacy in suppressing acid production is more critical than administration routes. This statement is less relevant, as it does not address therapeutic use or safety considerations.
Choice C reason: PPIs cause adverse effects in older adults, including increased risks of fractures, Clostridium difficile infection, and vitamin B12 deficiency due to prolonged acid suppression. This statement is inaccurate, as older clients are particularly susceptible to these risks, requiring careful monitoring during PPI therapy.
Choice D reason: PPI treatment emphasizes the lowest effective dose for the shortest duration to minimize risks like infections, fractures, or nutrient malabsorption. This approach balances acid suppression with safety, especially for ulcers or GERD, making this statement accurate and critical for patient education on safe use.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: SGLT-2 inhibitors, like empagliflozin, block sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 in the proximal tubule, preventing glucose reabsorption. This increases urinary glucose excretion, lowering blood sugar in type 2 diabetes. The mechanism is insulin-independent, reducing hyperglycemia and promoting weight loss, making this statement accurate for their primary action.
Choice B reason: SGLT-2 inhibitors do not interact with transcription factors to improve insulin sensitivity. This describes metformin’s action via AMPK activation in liver and muscle. SGLT-2 inhibitors act renally, not on transcription factors, making this statement inaccurate as it misattributes their mechanism to a different drug class.
Choice C reason: Inhibiting hepatic glucose production and increasing insulin sensitivity is metformin’s mechanism, not SGLT-2 inhibitors. SGLT-2 inhibitors work renally to excrete glucose, not by altering hepatic gluconeogenesis or peripheral insulin sensitivity. This statement is inaccurate, as it describes a different antidiabetic drug’s action.
Choice D reason: Blocking ATP-sensitive K+ channels is the mechanism of sulfonylureas, like glipizide, which stimulate insulin secretion from beta cells. SGLT-2 inhibitors act on renal glucose reabsorption, not beta cell channels. This statement is inaccurate, as it incorrectly assigns a sulfonylurea mechanism to SGLT-2 inhibitors.
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