A client presents in the emergency department with joint pain. Which condition would be least likely to cause this symptom?

Osteoporosis

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Osteoarthritis

Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Osteoporosis causes bone density loss, leading to fractures, not primary joint pain. Pain occurs secondary to fractures, not joint inflammation or degeneration. This condition is the least likely to cause joint pain directly, as its pathology focuses on bone fragility rather than synovial or cartilage issues.

Choice B reason: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) causes joint pain due to autoimmune-mediated synovitis, affecting multiple joints symmetrically. Inflammatory cytokines drive pain and swelling, making SLE a common cause of joint pain, unlike osteoporosis, which primarily affects bone structure without direct joint involvement.

Choice C reason: Osteoarthritis causes joint pain due to cartilage degeneration and bone-on-bone friction, particularly in weight-bearing joints like knees. Mechanical stress and inflammation contribute to chronic pain, making osteoarthritis a frequent cause of joint pain, unlike osteoporosis, which lacks primary joint pathology.

Choice D reason: Rheumatoid arthritis causes significant joint pain through autoimmune synovial inflammation, leading to swelling, stiffness, and cartilage damage. This systemic condition affects multiple joints, making it a primary cause of joint pain, unlike osteoporosis, which is associated with bone loss, not joint inflammation.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Semaglutide, a GLP-1 receptor agonist, is not considered safe in pregnancy due to limited data and potential fetal risks. Animal studies suggest possible teratogenicity, and it is typically avoided in pregnant patients with type 2 diabetes, making this statement inaccurate and irrelevant to its mechanism.

Choice B reason: Semaglutide mimics GLP-1, enhancing glucose-dependent insulin secretion, suppressing glucagon release, slowing gastric emptying, and promoting satiety. These actions lower blood glucose and support weight loss in type 2 diabetes. This statement is accurate, as GLP-1-mediated insulin production is central to its mechanism of action.

Choice C reason: Semaglutide is primarily used for type 2 diabetes, not type 1, as it relies on functional beta cells to enhance insulin secretion. Type 1 diabetes involves absolute insulin deficiency, rendering GLP-1 agonists ineffective. This statement is inaccurate, as semaglutide is not indicated for type 1 diabetes.

Choice D reason: Semaglutide requires regular blood sugar monitoring, as hypoglycemia can occur, especially with concomitant insulin or sulfonylureas. Its glucose-lowering effects necessitate careful management to prevent adverse events. This statement is inaccurate, as monitoring remains critical to ensure safe and effective diabetes control.

A. Inflammatory molecules have increased the permeability of the abdominal capillaries B. Low aldosterone levels have caused fluid retention and peritoneal edema C. The liver is not manufacturing clotting factors to prevent bleeding in the peritoneum D. The body is experiencing a fluid imbalance related to changing osmotic pressures

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Ascites results from increased permeability of peritoneal capillaries, often due to inflammatory molecules like cytokines in conditions such as liver cirrhosis or portal hypertension. This allows plasma proteins and fluid to leak into the peritoneal cavity, causing fluid accumulation. This statement accurately describes the pathophysiology of ascites in liver-related disorders.

Choice B reason: Low aldosterone levels do not cause ascites; instead, high aldosterone in liver disease (e.g., cirrhosis) promotes sodium and water retention, exacerbating fluid accumulation. This statement is inaccurate, as secondary hyperaldosteronism due to reduced liver metabolism of aldosterone is a key factor in ascites development.

Choice C reason: The liver’s failure to produce clotting factors can lead to bleeding tendencies, like variceal hemorrhage, but this does not directly cause ascites. Ascites is driven by fluid leakage from capillaries, not bleeding. This statement is inaccurate, as clotting factor deficiency is unrelated to peritoneal fluid accumulation.

Choice D reason: While fluid imbalance contributes to ascites, the primary mechanism involves portal hypertension and capillary permeability, not just osmotic pressure changes. This statement is overly vague and less accurate than the specific role of inflammatory molecules increasing capillary leakage in the peritoneal cavity.

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A client presents in the emergency department with joint pain. Which condition would be least likely to cause this symptom?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed semaglutide. The client knows that this medication is used for diabetes but that it is also popular for weight loss. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Which statement by the nurse explains ascites?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client who reports taking methotrexate, a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) for rheumatoid arthritis. What finding, if experienced by the client, would the nurse suspect is a complication of the medication?

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