A client presents to the emergency department with a history of frequent, watery diarrhea after traveling overseas. Which of the following interventions would the nurse implement first?

Administer the antidiarrheal medication Lomotil

Obtain a stool sample for culture

Have the lab draw an erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Initiate antibiotic therapy intravenously

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Rationale:
A. Antidiarrheal medications like Lomotil should be avoided initially in infectious diarrhea, as they can slow the elimination of pathogens and worsen the condition.
B. Obtaining a stool sample for culture is the first priority to identify the causative organism, especially in a client with recent travel history, which raises suspicion for infectious or parasitic diarrhea.
C. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures inflammation but is not specific or urgently needed for diagnosing infectious diarrhea.
D. Initiating antibiotics before identifying the pathogen may lead to inappropriate treatment and resistance; therapy should be guided by culture results.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Rationale:
A. Activities that could result in bleeding are more appropriate precautions for clients with thrombocytopenia, not neutropenia.
B. Restricting oral fluids to between meals is unnecessary and may lead to inadequate hydration, especially during cancer treatment.
C. Fresh flowers and potted plants can harbor bacteria and fungi, which pose a significant infection risk to neutropenic clients. These should be restricted.
D. A complete ban on visitors is unnecessary. Visitors should be screened for illness and follow hand hygiene protocols, but supportive visitation is still encouraged when safe

A. Pain that radiates to the left shoulder and worsens with deep breathing B. Generalized abdominal pain that improves with eating C. Left lower quadrant pain with rebound tenderness D. Right lower quadrant pain at McBurney's point with rebound tenderness

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Rationale:
A. Pain radiating to the left shoulder and worsening with deep breathing (Kehr’s sign) is more indicative of splenic injury, not appendicitis.
B. Pain from appendicitis typically worsens with movement and does not improve with eating; improvement with food is more characteristic of peptic ulcer disease.
C. Left lower quadrant pain is more consistent with diverticulitis, not appendicitis.
D. Right lower quadrant pain at McBurney's point with rebound tenderness is a hallmark sign of acute appendicitis, making this the most indicative finding.

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A client presents to the emergency department with a history of frequent, watery diarrhea after traveling overseas. Which of the following interventions would the nurse implement first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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