A client presents with scrotal pain and is diagnosed with varicocele.
What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism underlying varicocele?
Hormonal imbalances in the testicular veins.
Mutations in the KIT gene leading to tissue growth.
Dilation of scrotal veins due to faulty valves.
Obstruction of the spermatic cord blood flow.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Hormonal imbalances in the testicular veins.
This choice is not the primary pathophysiological mechanism underlying varicocele.
While hormonal imbalances can contribute to various reproductive issues, they are not the primary cause of varicocele.
Varicocele is primarily a vascular disorder involving the dilation of scrotal veins.
Choice B rationale:
Mutations in the KIT gene leading to tissue growth.
Mutations in the KIT gene are not associated with varicocele.
Varicocele is mainly related to venous dilation, not tissue growth due to genetic mutations.
Choice C rationale:
Dilation of scrotal veins due to faulty valves.
This is the correct answer.
Varicocele occurs when the valves within the testicular veins fail to function correctly, leading to the dilation and enlargement of these veins.
This increased pressure in the veins can result in scrotal pain and other symptoms commonly associated with varicocele.
Choice D rationale:
Obstruction of the spermatic cord blood flow.
While varicocele can affect blood flow in the spermatic cord, it is not primarily caused by the obstruction of blood flow.
The main issue is the faulty valves in the scrotal veins that lead to venous dilation and increased pressure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Varicocele.
Varicocele is unlikely to cause sudden and severe testicular pain with swelling and tenderness.
While it can cause discomfort, it typically does not present with such acute symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
Testicular cancer.
Testicular cancer can cause testicular pain and swelling, but it is not typically associated with the sudden and severe pain described in the scenario.
Additionally, the absence of the cremasteric reflex is not a common feature of testicular cancer.
Choice C rationale:
Testicular torsion.
This is the correct answer.
Testicular torsion is a medical emergency characterized by the twisting of the spermatic cord, leading to a sudden and severe testicular pain, along with swelling and tenderness.
The absence of the cremasteric reflex is a notable clinical sign of testicular torsion.
Choice D rationale:
Epididymitis.
While epididymitis can cause testicular pain and tenderness, it usually develops more gradually and is often associated with infection.
The sudden and severe nature of the pain described in the scenario is more indicative of testicular torsion.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Swelling and enlargement of the scrotum are not typically associated with testicular torsion.
In fact, testicular torsion often presents with a high-riding, tender testicle and a higher position of the affected testicle, rather than swelling and enlargement.
Choice B rationale:
This is a correct finding associated with testicular torsion.
Severe, sudden-onset testicular pain is a hallmark symptom of this condition due to the compromised blood flow to the testicle.
Choice C rationale:
Warmth and erythema of the scrotal area are not commonly seen in testicular torsion.
These symptoms are more indicative of inflammatory conditions rather than testicular torsion.
Choice D rationale:
Absence of a cremasteric reflex is associated with testicular torsion.
The cremasteric reflex is typically absent on the side of the torsion due to the disruption of nerve signals.
Choice E rationale:
A palpable mass within the scrotum can be a sign of testicular torsion, particularly if the torsion has led to testicular swelling and distortion of the normal anatomy.
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