A client recovering from heart surgery develops pericarditis and reports level 6 (0 to 10 scale) chest pain with deep breathing. Which prescribed PRN medication will be the most appropriate for the nurse to give?
IV morphine sulfate 4 mg
Oral acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg
Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg
Fentanyl 1 mg IV
The Correct Answer is C
Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like membrane surrounding the heart. It can cause chest pain, which is often worsened by deep breathing or coughing. The goal of treatment for pericarditis is to reduce inflammation and relieve pain.
In this case, the client's pain level is reported as 6 out of 10. As per the PRN (as-needed) medication options given:
C) Oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and can help reduce inflammation and relieve pain in cases of pericarditis. It is an appropriate choice for this client's pain level of 6 out of 10.
A) IV morphine sulfate 4 mg: IV morphine is a potent opioid analgesic and may be appropriate for severe pain. However, in this case, the client's pain level is moderate (6 out of 10), and it is not the first-line medication for pericarditis pain.
B) Oral acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg: Acetaminophen is a mild analgesic and antipyretic that can be effective for mild to moderate pain. However, in this situation, the client's pain is moderate (6 out of 10), and acetaminophen alone may not provide adequate relief for pericarditis pain.
D) Fentanyl 1 mg IV: Fentanyl is another potent opioid analgesic. However, similar to morphine, it may be more appropriate for severe pain, not moderate pain like in this scenario.
Based on the client's pain level and the goal of reducing inflammation, the most appropriate PRN medication for the nurse to give is oral ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Jugular venous distention (JVD) is a clinical sign that indicates increased fluid volume or fluid overload in the cardiovascular system. When the head of the client's bed is elevated at 45 degrees, the jugular veins should normally be flat or slightly distended. However, if the jugular veins appear engorged and bulging, it suggests that there is an increased amount of blood returning to the right side of the heart and is unable to be efficiently pumped forward, leading to jugular venous distention.
JVD is commonly seen in conditions such as heart failure, where the heart's ability to pump blood efficiently is compromised, leading to fluid accumulation in the veins and eventually causing jugular venous distention.
Option A, jugular vein atherosclerosis, is not a common cause of JVD. Atherosclerosis refers to the build-up of plaque within arteries, not veins.
Option C, decreased fluid volume, would lead to dehydration and decreased venous filling, which would not cause jugular venous distention. It would lead to flat or sunken jugular veins.
Option D, incompetent jugular vein valves, would not cause jugular venous distention with the head of the bed elevated. Incompetent valves may lead to venous reflux or backward flow of blood, but it would not lead to the distention of the jugular veins in this position.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The patient is apneic (not breathing) and has no palpable pulses, indicating a cardiac arrest or severe cardiovascular compromise. In this situation, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take next is to start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) immediately.
CPR is a life-saving procedure that combines chest compressions and rescue breaths to circulate oxygenated blood to vital organs when the heart is not effectively pumping. In the case of cardiac arrest, early initiation of CPR is critical to improve the chances of survival and minimize potential brain damage.
The heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia, rate 132, which suggests that the electrical impulses are reaching the heart, but the heart is not effectively pumping blood due to the lack of a palpable pulse. This condition requires immediate intervention with CPR rather than other treatments such as synchronized cardioversion (option A) or administering atropine (option D).
While applying supplemental oxygen via a non-rebreather mask (option C) is generally important in many emergency situations, it is not the immediate priority when a patient is apneic and has no palpable pulses. In such cases, CPR takes precedence to restore circulation and maintain oxygen delivery to the body's vital organs.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today