A client requests a recommendation for a hormone-free, easy to use form of contraception.
Which should the nurse suggest?

Copper intrauterine device.

Cervical ring.

Cervical cap.

Diaphragm.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

The copper intrauterine device (IUD) is a highly effective, long-acting reversible contraceptive option that does not contain hormones. It works by releasing copper ions, which create an inflammatory reaction in the uterus, toxic to sperm and eggs, thus preventing fertilization and implantation. Its mechanism is entirely non-hormonal, meeting the client's request.

Choice B rationale

A cervical ring, often referring to a vaginal ring like the NuvaRing, releases hormones (estrogen and progestin) to prevent ovulation. This contradicts the client's request for a hormone-free method of contraception. Hormonal methods work by altering the menstrual cycle and preventing the release of an egg.

Choice C rationale

A cervical cap is a barrier method that requires the use of spermicide to be effective. While it is hormone-free, it is not considered "easy to use" as it requires precise placement over the cervix before each act of intercourse and removal afterward, often necessitating practice for proper insertion and fit.

Choice D rationale

A diaphragm is a barrier method that, similar to a cervical cap, requires the use of spermicide for efficacy. It must be inserted before intercourse and left in place for several hours afterward. This method, while hormone-free, is not considered "easy to use" due to the dexterity and understanding required for proper placement and removal.

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Correct Answer is ["56"]

Explanation

Step 1 is: Calculate the total minutes the IV needs to run. 2 hours × 60 minutes/hour = 120 minutes.

Step 2 is: Calculate the mL/minute rate. 450 mL ÷ 120 minutes = 3.75 mL/minute.

Step 3 is: Calculate the gtt/minute rate. 3.75 mL/minute × 15 gtt/mL = 56.25 gtt/minute. The current IV rate is 56 gtt/minute.

Correct Answer is ["0.3"]

Explanation

Step 1 is: 25 mg ÷ (80 mg ÷ 1 mL) = 0.3125 mL.

Step 2 is: Round 0.3125 mL to the nearest tenth, which is 0.3 mL. Answer: 0.3 mL.

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A client requests a recommendation for a hormone-free, easy to use form of contraception. Which should the nurse suggest?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

During shift report the nurse is told that there is 450 mL left in a client's IV and it has to run for 2 more hours. If the drip factor is 15 gtt/mL what is the current IV rate?

Correct Answer is ["56"]

Explanation

A client is prescribed Methylprednisolone 25mg IV every 6 hours. The vial (after reconstitution) reads Methylprednisolone 80mg/mL. How many milliliters will be drawn up in the syringe? (Use a leading zero if it applies, Round to the nearest tenth, Do not use a trailing zero).

Correct Answer is ["0.3"]

Explanation

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A client requests a recommendation for a hormone-free, easy to use form of contraception.
Which should the nurse suggest?