A client who has been hospitalized with an exacerbation of heart failure experiences severe dyspnea with activity and remains on bedrest. Which assessment finding provides the nurse with the earliest indication that the client is developing a pressure ulcer?

Thick, dry, and dark area on bilateral heels.

Broken skin without evidence of undermining.

Defined area of persistent redness over bone.

Superficial sacral ulcer with defined margins.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Thick, dry, dark areas on heels suggest chronic skin changes, not early pressure ulcers. Persistent redness over bone is the earliest sign (Stage 1). This indicates later damage, per pressure injury staging and prevention protocols in nursing care for immobile clients.

Choice B reason: Broken skin indicates a Stage 2 pressure ulcer, beyond the earliest stage. Persistent redness (Stage 1) signals initial tissue compromise. Broken skin requires intervention but is not the earliest sign, per pressure ulcer assessment and prevention standards in nursing practice.

Choice C reason: Persistent redness over bone is the earliest sign of a Stage 1 pressure ulcer, indicating tissue compromise due to pressure. Early intervention prevents progression in bedrest clients with heart failure, per pressure injury prevention and skin assessment protocols in nursing care.

Choice D reason: A superficial sacral ulcer (Stage 2) is more advanced than persistent redness (Stage 1), the earliest sign. Redness allows earlier intervention to prevent ulceration. Ulcers indicate progression, per pressure ulcer staging and prevention guidelines for immobile clients in nursing.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Avoiding heavy lifting is correct, as it increases intraocular pressure (IOP) in glaucoma, damaging the optic nerve. This statement shows understanding, as limiting activities that elevate IOP protects retinal ganglion cells, reducing progression risk, aligning with proper glaucoma management strategies.

Choice B reason: Glaucoma can cause vision loss if untreated, as elevated IOP damages optic nerve fibers, leading to irreversible blindness. This statement reflects accurate understanding of the disease’s progressive nature, emphasizing the need for management to preserve vision, requiring no further teaching.

Choice C reason: Eye drops (e.g., timolol) reduce IOP but do not cure glaucoma or restore vision, as optic nerve damage is irreversible. This statement indicates misunderstanding, as glaucoma is chronic, requiring lifelong management to slow progression, necessitating further teaching to correct this misconception.

Choice D reason: Regular eye exams monitor IOP and optic nerve health in glaucoma, preventing progression. This statement shows understanding, as consistent follow-up detects changes in retinal nerve fiber layer thickness, ensuring timely adjustments in therapy, aligning with effective disease management.

A. A client with pancreatitis who has a fasting glucose of 190 mg/dL (10.55 mmol/L) today and had 160 mg/dL (8.88 mmol/L) yesterday. B. A client with a gastrointestinal (GI) bleed who is receiving a blood transfusion and has a hemoglobin of 7.0 g/dL (4.34 mmol/L). C. A client with cancer who has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of less than 500/mm3 today and had 2,000/mm3 yesterday. D. A client with hepatitis who is jaundiced and has a bilirubin level that is 4 times the normal value.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Elevated glucose (190 mg/dL) in pancreatitis needs monitoring but is less urgent than severe neutropenia (ANC <500/mm3), which risks life-threatening infections. Glucose can be managed with insulin, per diabetes and pancreatitis care protocols, but neutropenia requires immediate intervention.

Choice B reason: Hemoglobin of 7.0 g/dL in a GI bleed is critical but less immediate, as the client is receiving a transfusion. Neutropenia (ANC <500/mm3) poses an urgent infection risk, requiring isolation. Transfusion addresses anemia, per bleeding and hematology care standards.

Choice C reason: An ANC <500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, posing an immediate infection risk in cancer patients, requiring urgent isolation and antibiotics. This rapid drop from 2,000/mm3 demands priority intervention to prevent sepsis, per oncology and infection control protocols in nursing practice.

Choice D reason: Elevated bilirubin in hepatitis is concerning but less urgent than neutropenia (ANC <500/mm3), which risks sepsis. Jaundice requires monitoring and treatment, but severe infection risk takes precedence, per liver disease and critical care prioritization standards in nursing practice.

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A client who has been hospitalized with an exacerbation of heart failure experiences severe dyspnea with activity and remains on bedrest. Which assessment finding provides the nurse with the earliest indication that the client is developing a pressure ulcer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is teaching a client with newly diagnosed glaucoma about the condition. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Which client’s laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse? Reference Range: Hemoglobin (Hgb) [14 to 18 g/dL (8.7 to 11.2 mmol/L)]; Fasting Blood Glucose [70 to 110 mg/dL (3.9 to 6.1 mmol/L)]; Neutrophils (ANC) [55 to 70%: 2,500 to 8,000/mm3 (2.5 to 5.8 x109/L)]

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

An older male client reports nocturia with difficulty starting his urine stream. Which additional assessment should the nurse perform to obtain further data related to this information?

Following a total thyroidectomy, the nurse plans to observe a client for complications. Which finding indicates that the client has developed a complication?

The nurse measures the client’s blood pressure (BP) and notes that it is significantly higher than the previous reading. Which should the nurse do next? (Select all that apply)

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After placing a client who is having a seizure in the side-lying position, which intervention should the nurse implement?

The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) who has a history of myocardial infarction (MI) and smokes two packs of cigarettes daily. Which instruction has the highest priority?

A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse notes the client’s INR is 4.8. Which action should the nurse take? Reference Range: INR [2.0 to 3.0 for atrial fibrillation].