A client who has had long standing hypertension has been prescribed a clonidine patch. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide?
Place the patch on the anterior chest.
Remove the patch if a headache develops.
Rotate the application sites and inspect the skin.
Monitor weight on a daily basis.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Placing the patch on the anterior chest is not the best discharge instruction for this client. Clonidine is a drug that lowers blood pressure by stimulating alpha-2 receptors in the brain. ¹ The patch delivers the drug through the skin and into the bloodstream. ² The patch should be applied to a hairless area on the upper arm or torso, not the chest, to ensure proper absorption and avoid irritation. ³
Choice B reason: Removing the patch if a headache develops is not a good discharge instruction for this client. Headache is a common side effect of clonidine, especially when starting or changing the dose. ² Removing the patch abruptly may cause a rebound increase in blood pressure, which can be dangerous. ³ The client should keep the patch on for 7 days, unless instructed otherwise by the provider, and report any severe or persistent headaches.
Choice C reason: Rotating the application sites and inspecting the skin is the best discharge instruction for this client. Rotating the sites helps prevent skin irritation and allergic reactions from the patch. ³ Inspecting the skin helps detect any signs of infection, inflammation, or rash that may require medical attention. The client should also wash the old site with soap and water after removing the patch. ²
Choice D reason: Monitoring weight on a daily basis is not a necessary discharge instruction for this client. Weight is not a sensitive indicator of the effectiveness or safety of clonidine therapy. Weight may be monitored periodically to assess the client's fluid status and possible signs of heart failure, which clonidine can help prevent. ¹ However, this is not a priority action for the client using the patch.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Vitamin B12 does not contribute to the increased production of RBCs after significant blood loss. Vitamin B12 is a type of vitamin that is essential for the normal formation and maturation of red blood cells (RBCs), which carry oxygen throughout the body. ¹ However, vitamin B12 does not increase the production of RBCs in response to blood loss. That is the role of erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs. ²
Choice B reason: Vitamin B12 is not needed to prevent excessive production of red blood cells. Vitamin B12 is needed for the normal production of red blood cells, not for the prevention of overproduction. Excessive production of red blood cells, also known as polycythemia, can cause the blood to become thick and viscous, increasing the risk of clotting and stroke. ³ Polycythemia can be caused by various factors, such as smoking, dehydration, or genetic mutations, but not by a lack of vitamin B12.
Choice C reason: Vitamin B12 is not needed to prevent RBCs from sticking together. Vitamin B12 is needed for the normal formation and maturation of RBCs, not for the prevention of aggregation. RBCs can stick together and form clumps, also known as rouleaux, which can impair blood flow and oxygen delivery. Rouleaux can be caused by various factors, such as inflammation, infection, or cancer, but not by a lack of vitamin B12.
Choice D reason: Vitamin B12 is needed for the normal formation and maturation of RBCs, but it cannot be absorbed by the body without a substance called intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is a protein that is produced by the stomach and binds to vitamin B12, allowing it to be absorbed by the small intestine. ¹ Pernicious anemia is a type of anemia that occurs when the stomach does not produce enough intrinsic factor, leading to vitamin B12 deficiency. The only way to treat pernicious anemia is by giving vitamin B12 injections, which bypass the need for intrinsic factor.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: The pain you have is because your heart valves are damaged is not the most appropriate response. This statement may apply to a client with valvular heart disease, but not necessarily to a client with coronary artery disease. The nurse should explain that coronary artery disease is a condition that affects the blood vessels that supply the heart, not the heart valves.
Choice B reason: Your heart muscle is weak and is not pumping forcefully is not the most appropriate response. This statement may apply to a client with heart failure, but not necessarily to a client with coronary artery disease. The nurse should explain that coronary artery disease is a condition that reduces the blood flow to the heart, not the heart's contractility.
Choice C reason: The pain is caused by decreased oxygen to the heart muscle is the most appropriate response. This statement accurately describes the cause of angina, which is the chest pain that occurs when the heart does not receive enough oxygen due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. The nurse should also inform the client about the factors that can trigger or relieve angina, such as physical exertion, emotional stress, cold weather, or nitroglycerin.
Choice D reason: The layers of your heart are weak and thin is not the most appropriate response. This statement may apply to a client with cardiomyopathy, but not necessarily to a client with coronary artery disease. The nurse should explain that coronary artery disease is a condition that affects the blood vessels that supply the heart, not the heart's structure.
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