A client who is 32 weeks gestation comes to the women's health clinic and reports nausea and vomiting. On examination, the nurse notes that the client has an elevated blood pressure. Which action should the nurse implement next?
Inspect the client's face for edema
Ascertain the frequency of headaches
Evaluate for history of cluster headaches
Observe and time client's contractions
The Correct Answer is A
Inspect the client's face for edema:
Elevated blood pressure during pregnancy may be a sign of preeclampsia, a condition that can involve fluid retention. Edema, particularly in the face, is one of the signs that the nurse should assess for in determining if preeclampsia is a concern.
Ascertain the frequency of headaches:
Frequent headaches can be a symptom of various conditions, including preeclampsia. Gathering information about the frequency and characteristics of headaches can provide additional data for assessing the client's overall condition.
Evaluate for history of cluster headaches:
Cluster headaches, while severe, are not typically associated with elevated blood pressure during pregnancy. This information might not be directly relevant to the client's current symptoms.
Observe and time client's contractions:
Contractions are not typically associated with nausea, vomiting, or elevated blood pressure during pregnancy. This action may not address the primary concerns presented by the client.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Unilateral lower leg pain:
Unilateral lower leg pain can be a symptom of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious condition. It requires further assessment and intervention.
B. Soft, spongy fundus:
A soft, spongy fundus is not a normal finding 12 hours postpartum. The fundus should be firm and well-contracted. A soft fundus could indicate uterine atony, a potential cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
C. Saturating two perineal pads per hour:
Saturating two perineal pads per hour is not a normal finding and may indicate excessive bleeding, which is concerning for postpartum hemorrhage. This requires immediate attention.
D. Pulse rate of 56 beats/minute:
A pulse rate of 56 beats per minute can be within the normal range, especially if the client is at rest. However, it's essential to consider the overall clinical picture and whether there are any signs of distress or symptoms associated with a low pulse rate.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects:At this point, the AFP result is only an indicator, not a diagnosis. The client has not undergone sufficient diagnostic evaluation (such as ultrasound) to confirm any congenital defect that would warrant intrauterine surgery. Treatment options can only be discussed once a definitive diagnosis has been made.
B. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) should be evaluated:While a repeat AFP test could be done in some cases to rule out lab error or confirm the result, this is not typically the immediate next step. An ultrasound provides more definitive and comprehensive information than simply repeating the AFP test.
C. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading:Providing false reassurance may lead to misunderstandings. While false positives can happen, it's crucial to follow up with further assessments to ensure the accuracy of the results.
D. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results:An elevated AFP level is a screening test, not a definitive diagnosis. A sonogram (ultrasound) is the next step to obtain more detailed information about the fetus. Ultrasound can help assess for neural tube defects, confirm gestational age, and check for other anomalies that could explain the elevated AFP levels. This provides the most accurate and non-invasive method for evaluating potential fetal abnormalities.
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