A client who is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with acute decompensated heart failure is receiving a continuous infusion of milrinone via a subclavian venous catheter. Which action should the nurse take when preparing to administer the first dose of IV furosemide?

Administer furosemide IV over ten minutes.

Notify the healthcare provider (HCP) of the incompatibility of the two drugs.

Infuse furosemide through a central line to prevent extravasation.

Give furosemide through a separate IV access

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Administer furosemide IV over ten minutes. While slow IV administration is recommended to prevent ototoxicity, the priority concern is that milrinone and furosemide are incompatible when administered in the same IV line. The nurse must first ensure separate IV access before considering the administration rate.
B. Notify the healthcare provider (HCP) of the incompatibility of the two drugs. The nurse does not need to notify the HCP but should instead use a separate IV line or flush the line thoroughly before and after administration if only one access is available. Milrinone and furosemide should never be mixed, as their combination can cause precipitation, leading to catheter occlusion or embolization.
C. Infuse furosemide through a central line to prevent extravasation. Furosemide can be given peripherally or centrally, but the concern here is drug incompatibility, not extravasation. Furosemide is not a vesicant, so central line administration is not required unless no peripheral access is available.
D. Give furosemide through a separate IV access. Milrinone is incompatible with furosemide due to pH differences, which can lead to precipitation and potential catheter occlusion. To ensure safe administration, furosemide should be given through a separate IV line or, if no secondary access is available, the line should be flushed thoroughly before and after administration.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Prepare to give phenytoin IV as prescribed. Phenytoin is used for seizure prophylaxis in clients with moderate to severe head injuries (GCS ≤ 8–10). A GCS score of 14 indicates mild head injury, and prophylactic anticonvulsants may not be necessary unless ordered for specific risk factors.
B. Perform a substernal rub to evoke a response to pain. A substernal rub (painful stimulus) is used to assess response in unconscious or unresponsive clients (GCS ≤ 8). With a GCS of 14, the client is alert or nearly fully conscious, making a painful stimulus unnecessary and inappropriate.
C. Promptly notify the healthcare provider (HCP) of the GCS score. A GCS of 14 is not a critical or emergency finding, as it indicates mild neurological impairment. While the HCP should be updated on significant changes, routine monitoring is sufficient unless deterioration occurs.
D. Continue monitoring the client's GCS score every 2 hours. Frequent neurological assessments are crucial in head injury management to detect worsening conditions like increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) or cerebral edema. Monitoring the GCS every 2 hours ensures timely intervention if the client’s condition changes.

A. View the rhythm in another chest lead. B. Begin chest compressions at a rate of 120 times a minute. C. Auscultate all chest fields for muffled lung sounds. D. Observe for swelling at the fracture site.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. View the rhythm in another chest lead. While verifying the rhythm in another lead may help confirm the accuracy of the monitor, it does not address the immediate absence of a pulse and respirations. The client is in pulseless electrical activity (PEA), which requires immediate intervention rather than rhythm verification.
B. Begin chest compressions at a rate of 120 times a minute. The client has no palpable carotid pulse and no spontaneous respirations despite a sinus rhythm on the monitor, indicating pulseless electrical activity (PEA). PEA is a form of cardiac arrest where the heart shows electrical activity but fails to generate effective circulation. Immediate high-quality chest compressions are essential to maintain perfusion while addressing the underlying cause, such as hypovolemia or tension pneumothorax.
C. Auscultate all chest fields for muffled lung sounds. While assessing for muffled lung sounds may help detect conditions such as tension pneumothorax or hemothorax, it should not delay the initiation of CPR. Once compressions are started, the underlying cause of PEA can be investigated.
D. Observe for swelling at the fracture site. Swelling at the fracture site may indicate bleeding or compartment syndrome, but assessing the fracture should not take priority over initiating CPR. If hemorrhage is suspected as a cause of PEA, rapid fluid resuscitation should be initiated after starting chest compressions.

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A client who is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with acute decompensated heart failure is receiving a continuous infusion of milrinone via a subclavian venous catheter. Which action should the nurse take when preparing to administer the first dose of IV furosemide?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 14. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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