A client who is now a G6 P6006 is 15 minutes postpartum from a normal vaginal delivery. The newborn weighed 10 lbs 13 ounces (4595 grams) at birth.
Which of the following complications should the nurse monitor for in this client?
Hemorrhage.
Thrombosis.
Seizures.
Infection.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
A newborn weighing 10 lbs 13 ounces (4595 grams) is classified as macrosomic. The delivery of a macrosomic infant is a significant risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. The uterus is overstretched due to the large fetus, which can lead to uterine atony. Uterine atony is the primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage, as the myometrium fails to contract effectively to compress the maternal blood vessels.
Choice B rationale
Thrombosis is a potential complication postpartum, but it is not the most significant risk associated with the birth of a macrosomic infant. The major risk factor linked specifically to a large baby is uterine atony, which leads to hemorrhage. While a P6006 client is at a higher risk for all postpartum complications due to high parity, the most immediate and specific risk here is hemorrhage due to uterine overdistention.
Choice C rationale
Seizures can occur postpartum, primarily in clients with preeclampsia or eclampsia. However, there is no information in the scenario to suggest the client has a history of preeclampsia. Therefore, while a possibility, it is not the most likely complication based on the given information. The birth of a macrosomic infant is directly linked to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice D rationale
Postpartum infection is a potential complication, especially with a history of multiple deliveries and potential for birth trauma. However, this is not the most immediate or highest risk factor directly associated with the delivery of a macrosomic infant. The primary risk from uterine overdistention is the failure of the uterus to contract and control bleeding, making hemorrhage the most significant concern.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Racemic epinephrine nebulizer therapy is a highly effective measure for bronchodilation in a child with croup. This alpha-adrenergic agonist works by stimulating receptors in the smooth muscle of the airway. This stimulation leads to vasoconstriction, reducing the mucosal edema and swelling of the vocal cords and trachea that are characteristic of croup. The rapid reduction in upper airway inflammation and swelling directly alleviates stridor and respiratory distress, improving airflow and oxygenation.
Choice B rationale
Teaching a child to take long, slow breaths is generally a technique used for anxiety or to prevent hyperventilation. However, in a child with croup, the upper airway obstruction makes deep breathing difficult and may increase their distress. The effort to take long, slow breaths against a narrowed airway can further exacerbate the child's respiratory effort and may not provide any significant relief from the underlying swelling.
Choice C rationale
Administering an oral analgesic would be ineffective for aiding bronchodilation in a child with croup. The primary issue in croup is upper airway inflammation and edema, not pain. Analgesics, such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen, primarily work to reduce fever and discomfort. They have no direct pharmacological effect on the smooth muscles of the bronchi or on the mucosal swelling that is causing the respiratory distress.
Choice D rationale
Urging a child to continue to take oral fluids is important for hydration, but it does not directly aid in bronchodilation. In a child with significant respiratory distress from croup, encouraging oral fluids may actually pose a risk for aspiration due to their difficulty breathing and potential fatigue. While hydration is a supportive measure, it does not address the underlying pathology of airway swelling and is not a primary intervention for bronchodilation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A fundus 3 finger-breadths below the umbilicus after voiding on the third postpartum day is a normal finding. Fundal height typically descends approximately one finger-breadth per day following delivery. This physiological process, known as involution, involves myometrial contraction and autolysis, leading to the uterus returning to its pre-pregnant size.
Choice B rationale
Mild uterine cramping that resolves with NSAIDs is a normal postpartum finding. This cramping, often called afterpains, is caused by intermittent myometrial contractions. These contractions are stimulated by endogenous oxytocin and are essential for compressing uterine blood vessels and preventing postpartum hemorrhage. NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, which is a key mediator of pain and uterine contractions.
Choice C rationale
A fundus 2 finger-breadths above the pubic symphysis after voiding on the third postpartum day would be an extremely low finding and is not indicative of subinvolution. This position suggests that the uterus has already undergone a significant amount of involution, which is not the pathology of subinvolution. The fundus should still be palpable abdominally at this stage.
Choice D rationale
Uterine subinvolution is a condition where the uterus fails to return to its pre-pregnant state at the expected rate. A fundus palpated at the umbilicus on the third postpartum day is abnormal. The fundus should have descended approximately three finger-breadths below the umbilicus by this time. This assessment finding indicates a delay in the phys
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