A client with a temperature of 39°C (102.2°F) and a rash is being evaluated. Which condition should the nurse consider?
Meningococcal meningitis.
Urinary tract infection.
Gastroenteritis.
Osteoarthritis.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Meningococcal meningitis can present with a high fever (39°C or 102.2°F) and a rash, indicating a severe bacterial infection.
Choice B rationale
Urinary tract infections typically present with urinary symptoms, not a rash.
Choice C rationale
Gastroenteritis presents with gastrointestinal symptoms, not a rash.
Choice D rationale
Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease and does not cause fever or rash.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreasing the secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) by the pituitary gland is not a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit. TSH primarily regulates thyroid function and metabolism, and its secretion is not directly related to fluid balance or osmolality.
Choice B rationale
Increasing renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) activity by the kidneys is the body’s primary compensatory response to fluid volume deficit. When there is a decrease in blood volume or blood pressure, the kidneys release renin, which activates the RAAS. This system increases the reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys, leading to an increase in blood volume and blood pressure.
Choice C rationale
Decreasing the secretion of cortisol by the adrenal gland is not a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit. Cortisol is a stress hormone that helps regulate metabolism, immune response, and other functions, but it is not directly involved in fluid balance.
Choice D rationale
Increasing the secretion of natriuretic peptides by the heart is a response to fluid overload, not fluid deficit. Natriuretic peptides promote the excretion of sodium and water by the kidneys, which helps reduce blood volume and pressure. This response is opposite to what is needed in a fluid volume deficit situation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack (stroke) is less common than an ischemic brain attack. Ischemic strokes account for the majority of strokes.
Choice B rationale
Thrombolytic drugs are used to treat ischemic strokes, not hemorrhagic strokes. They do not cause hyper-reactive reflexes.
Choice C rationale
A hemorrhagic brain attack requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding in the brain, which can rapidly worsen and cause severe damage.
Choice D rationale
An ischemic brain attack is not necessarily less severe than a hemorrhagic brain attack. Both types of strokes are serious, but hemorrhagic strokes often require more urgent intervention due to the risk of ongoing bleeding.
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