A nurse has identified a fluid volume deficit in the patient who has suffered prolonged vomiting and diarrhea.
Which assessment data is most important in identifying that the patient may be developing prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI)?
Urine specific gravity of 1.029.
BUN of 28 mg/dL.
Creatinine of 2.4 mg/dL.
Dry mucous membranes.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Urine specific gravity of 1.029 indicates concentrated urine, which is common in dehydration but not specific to prerenal AKI. It reflects the kidney’s ability to concentrate urine in response to fluid deficit.
Choice B rationale
BUN of 28 mg/dL can indicate dehydration or renal impairment. However, it is not as specific as creatinine in diagnosing prerenal AKI. BUN can be elevated due to other factors like high protein intake or gastrointestinal bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Creatinine of 2.4 mg/dL is a critical indicator of kidney function. Elevated creatinine levels are more specific to renal impairment, including prerenal AKI, as they reflect the kidney’s ability to filter waste products.
Choice D rationale
Dry mucous membranes are a sign of dehydration but are not specific to prerenal AKI. They indicate fluid volume deficit but do not directly reflect kidney function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Septic shock is characterized by a systemic inflammatory response to infection, leading to vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, and hypotension. The patient’s elevated temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension are consistent with septic shock. In septic shock, the body’s response to infection leads to widespread inflammation and impaired tissue perfusion.
Choice B rationale
Hypovolemic shock is caused by a significant loss of blood or fluids, leading to decreased circulating volume and hypotension. While the patient’s hypotension and tachycardia could be consistent with hypovolemic shock, the elevated temperature suggests an infectious process, making septic shock more likely.
Choice C rationale
Cardiogenic shock is caused by the heart’s inability to pump effectively, leading to decreased cardiac output and tissue perfusion. While hypotension and tachycardia are consistent with cardiogenic shock, the elevated temperature is not a typical finding. Cardiogenic shock is usually associated with conditions like myocardial infarction or severe heart failure.
Choice D rationale
Neurogenic shock is caused by a disruption in the autonomic pathways, leading to vasodilation and hypotension. It is typically associated with spinal cord injuries or severe head trauma. The patient’s elevated temperature and tachycardia are not consistent with neurogenic shock, making septic shock the more likely diagnosis.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute indicates tachypnea, which is a sign of respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is needed to address the underlying cause and prevent further deterioration of the patient’s condition.
Choice B rationale
A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) indicates a fever, which may suggest an infection. While this requires medical attention, it is not as immediately critical as respiratory distress.
Choice C rationale
A blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg is considered high, but it does not indicate an immediate need for intervention in the context of COPD. Hypertension should be managed, but it is not an acute emergency.
Choice D rationale
A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Monitoring the patient’s heart rate is important, but it is not an urgent concern in this scenario.
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