A client with an external fixation device for a fractured left femur is troubled with left foot pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Administer PRN pain medication.
Observe the leg for swelling.
Assess peripheral pulses.
Auscultate blood pressure.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Administering PRN pain medication can help manage the client's discomfort, but it does not address the underlying cause of the pain. It is essential to assess and identify the source of the pain before administering pain relief. Providing pain medication without a thorough assessment may mask symptoms of a serious underlying issue.
Choice B reason: Observing the leg for swelling is important, as swelling can indicate complications such as compartment syndrome or infection. However, it is not the first action the nurse should take. While swelling is a significant sign, assessing blood flow to the extremity is more critical and should be prioritized.
Choice C reason: Assessing peripheral pulses is the correct first intervention. The presence of foot pain in a client with an external fixation device for a fractured femur could indicate compromised blood flow to the lower extremity. Assessing the peripheral pulses will help determine if there is adequate circulation. If pulses are weak or absent, it may suggest a serious vascular issue that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as tissue ischemia or necrosis.
Choice D reason: Auscultating blood pressure is a routine assessment but does not directly address the immediate concern of left foot pain in this scenario. Blood pressure assessment is important for overall health monitoring but is not the priority when dealing with a possible vascular complication in the affected limb. Ensuring adequate blood flow to the extremity takes precedence.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Comparing the capillary refill in the hands is a useful assessment for evaluating peripheral circulation, but it is not specific to diagnosing carpal tunnel syndrome. Carpal tunnel syndrome involves compression of the median nerve, and capillary refill does not provide information about nerve compression.
Choice B reason: Determining the client's sleeping position may provide insight into factors that exacerbate symptoms, but it does not directly assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. While certain positions might worsen the condition, this information alone is not diagnostic.
Choice C reason: Applying firm pressure over the ulnar artery is not relevant to assessing carpal tunnel syndrome. The ulnar artery supplies blood to the hand, but carpal tunnel syndrome involves the median nerve, not the ulnar artery.
Choice D reason: Tapping the client's wrists to locate the pain, known as Tinel's sign, is a specific test for carpal tunnel syndrome. Tinel's sign is positive when tapping over the median nerve at the wrist elicits tingling or pain in the fingers, indicating nerve compression.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A fasting serum glucose level of 140 mg/dL (7.77 mmol/L) indicates hyperglycemia, which is elevated but not an immediate life-threatening complication. It suggests poor blood glucose control but does not directly indicate a complication specific to type 2 diabetes and hypertension. This value should prompt further evaluation and adjustments in diabetes management, but it is not as critical as other potential findings.
Choice B reason: A glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) level of 6.9% is within the range of good diabetic control. While it indicates the client has been managing their blood glucose levels relatively well over the past few months, it does not suggest a current complication. This value is used to assess long-term glucose control rather than acute issues.
Choice C reason: A serum creatinine level of 1.6 mg/dL (141.44 umol/L) is elevated and indicates impaired kidney function. Clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension are at increased risk for kidney disease, known as diabetic nephropathy or hypertensive nephropathy. Elevated creatinine levels suggest that the kidneys are not filtering waste products effectively, which is a significant complication that requires immediate attention and intervention.
Choice D reason: A white blood cell (WBC) count of 11,000/mm3 (11 x 10^9/L) is slightly elevated and may suggest an infection or inflammation. However, it is not a specific complication related to type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Elevated WBC counts warrant further investigation to identify any underlying infection or inflammatory process, but it is not as directly related to diabetic or hypertensive complications as elevated serum creatinine.
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