A client with asthma has been taking prednisone daily for two years and is now in the emergency department complaining of back pain.
An MRI of the spine shows a compression fracture of a vertebra.
Which adverse effect of prednisone is most likely associated with these findings?
Fluid retention
Osteoporosis
Adrenal insufficiency
Gastrointestinal bleeding
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Fluid retention is a common side effect of prednisone, but it is not directly associated with compression fractures of the vertebrae.
Choice B rationale
Long-term use of prednisone can lead to osteoporosis, a condition that weakens bones and makes them more likely to break. Osteoporosis can increase the risk of fractures, including compression fractures of the vertebrae. This is likely the adverse effect of prednisone that is most associated with the client’s findings.
Choice C rationale
Adrenal insufficiency is a potential side effect of long-term prednisone use. However, it is not directly linked to compression fractures of the vertebrae.
Choice D rationale
While gastrointestinal bleeding can occur with prednisone use, it is not directly related to compression fractures of the vertebrae.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, does not prevent discoloration of body fluids. This is not a known side effect of isoniazid.
Choice B rationale
While isoniazid can potentially cause liver damage, pyridoxine does not prevent this side effect. Instead, regular liver function tests are typically performed to monitor for this potential complication.
Choice C rationale
Pyridoxine is prescribed alongside isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy, which is a potential side effect of isoniazid. Peripheral neuropathy can cause symptoms such as numbness and tingling in the hands and feet.
Choice D rationale
Pyridoxine does not prevent drug-resistant tuberculosis. Drug resistance is a complex issue that is not prevented by vitamin supplementation. Prednisone Prednisone Explore
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy, a condition that affects patients with liver failure. It works by reducing the absorption of ammonia in the gut. Having loose, watery stools is a desired therapeutic effect of lactulose. Therefore, no action is required if the patient is oriented and has had 6 loose, watery stools since 07007.
Choice B rationale
Withholding the dose and contacting the doctor for daily stool count parameters is not necessary in this situation. The patient is currently oriented, which suggests that the lactulose is effectively managing their hepatic encephalopathy.
Choice C rationale
Administering the medication because diarrhea is a common side effect is not the correct course of action. The presence of loose, watery stools is not merely a side effect, but a desired therapeutic effect of lactulose in the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy.
Choice D rationale
Removing fall precautions due to changes in mental status is not necessary in this situation. The patient is currently oriented, which suggests that the lactulose is effectively managing their hepatic encephalopathy.
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