A client with atrial fibrillation receives a prescription for a loading dose of digoxin 0.5 mg PO. The medication is available in 125 mcg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Enter numerical value only.)
The Correct Answer is ["4"]
Convert mg to mcg: 1 mg = 1000 mcg, so 0.5 mg = 0.5 x 1000 = 500 mcg
Divide the desired dose by the tablet strength: 500 mcg / 125 mcg/tablet = 4 tablets
So, the nurse should administer 4 tablets.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Explain that alternative treatment options may be helpful is not appropriate at this moment. The spouse is expressing grief, and the focus should be on emotional support rather than discussing medical treatment options, which may not be relevant to the spouse’s current emotional state.
B. Offer reassurance that the spouse is not alone may provide some comfort but does not address the underlying need for the spouse to express their emotions. It is more important to listen and allow the spouse to share their feelings first.
C. Encourage the spouse to share their feelings is the most appropriate first response. The spouse is expressing emotional distress, and the nurse should offer a safe space for the spouse to talk about their feelings. This approach helps to validate the spouse’s emotions and provides an opportunity for emotional support.
D. Remind the spouse that the client may still live a long time is not appropriate because it could invalidate the spouse’s feelings of loss and grief. The spouse is dealing with the reality of the terminal illness, and the nurse should not offer false hope or minimize the situation.
D. Remind the spouse that the client may still live a long time is not appropriate because it could invalidate the spouse’s feelings of loss and grief. The spouse is dealing with the reality of the terminal illness, and the nurse should not offer false hope or minimize the situation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Record a palpable systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg is premature because the nurse has not yet completed the process of determining the systolic blood pressure.
B. Inflate blood pressure cuff to 120 mm Hg is the correct action. The nurse should inflate the cuff 30 mm Hg above the point where the radial pulse disappears to ensure accurate measurement of the systolic blood pressure.
C. Release the manometer valve immediately would not allow the nurse to accurately determine the systolic blood pressure. The valve should be released slowly to palpate the return of the pulse.
D. Document the absence of the radial pulse is unnecessary because the disappearance of the pulse is a normal part of the procedure when obtaining a systolic blood pressure by palpation.
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