A client with PTSD reports nightmares, flashbacks, and hypervigilance. Which treatment combination is most appropriate?
Exposure therapy and benzodiazepines
Psychoanalysis and antipsychotics
Group therapy and beta-blockers
Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (TF-CBT) and SSRIs
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: While exposure therapy is a valid component of trauma treatment, benzodiazepines are generally contraindicated for long-term PTSD management. They can interfere with the therapeutic process of habituation and extinction of fear memories and carry a high risk of dependency and substance use disorders in this vulnerable population.
Choice B reason: Psychoanalysis is a long-term approach that may not address the acute, distressing symptoms of PTSD effectively. Antipsychotics are not first-line treatments and are typically reserved for patients who exhibit comorbid psychotic features or severe, treatment-resistant aggression that has not responded to standard trauma-focused therapeutic modalities and antidepressants.
Choice C reason: Group therapy provides social support but is usually an adjunct rather than the primary evidence-based intervention for core PTSD symptoms. Beta-blockers may help manage peripheral autonomic symptoms like tachycardia, but they do not address the underlying cognitive distortions or the affective components of flashbacks and nightmares as effectively as SSRIs.
Choice D reason: TF-CBT is the most robust evidence-based psychotherapeutic intervention for addressing the cognitive and behavioral aspects of PTSD. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line pharmacological treatment, as they help regulate mood, reduce anxiety, and diminish the frequency and intensity of intrusive symptoms, nightmares, and hyperarousal.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Akathisia is a common extrapyramidal side effect characterized by subjective feelings of inner restlessness and an inability to sit still. While distressing and a risk factor for non-compliance or suicide, it is generally not acutely life-threatening compared to systemic syndromes involving autonomic instability and hyperpyrexia.
Choice B reason: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening idiosyncratic reaction to antipsychotic drugs. It is characterized by muscle rigidity, fever, autonomic instability, and altered mental status. Given the high mortality rate associated with NMS, the nurse must prioritize this medical emergency over non-lethal side effects of the medication.
Choice C reason: Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by excessive serotonergic activity, often associated with SSRIs. While critical, the use of first-generation antipsychotics significantly elevates the specific risk for NMS. The nurse must distinguish between these syndromes, but NMS is the primary concern when potent dopamine antagonists are used.
Choice D reason: Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) encompass a range of movement disorders, including dystonia and pseudoparkinsonism. While these are frequent side effects of first-generation antipsychotics, they are typically manageable with dose adjustments or anticholinergic medications and do not carry the same immediate mortality risk as the systemic collapse seen in NMS.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Tardive dyskinesia is a late-onset adverse effect characterized by involuntary, choreoathetoid movements, particularly of the tongue, face, and jaw. It does not typically present with systemic instability, autonomic dysfunction, or acute muscle rigidity, making it an unlikely diagnosis for a patient exhibiting sudden confusion and fluctuating vital signs.
Choice B reason: Akathisia is a subjective feeling of inner restlessness and an objective need to remain in motion, such as pacing or foot tapping. While distressing, it does not cause the life-threatening physiological collapse, profound "lead-pipe" muscle rigidity, or the significant cognitive alterations associated with the patient's current clinical presentation.
Choice C reason: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare but fatal idiosyncratic reaction to dopamine antagonists. The hallmark triad includes severe muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability, such as tachycardia and labile blood pressure. The patient's confusion and recent dose escalation are classic indicators of this medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
Choice D reason: Extrapyramidal symptoms is a broad umbrella term encompassing dystonia, parkinsonism, and akathisia. While the symptoms described are technically related to the extrapyramidal system, NMS is a specific, acute, and far more dangerous syndrome that requires a precise diagnosis beyond the general category of extrapyramidal side effects.
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