A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate as part of the treatment plan. To ensure the client's safety, which compound would the nurse have readily available?
potassium chloride
ferrous sulfate
calcium carbonate
calcium gluconate
The Correct Answer is D
A. Potassium chloride is not used in the treatment of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Potassium chloride is typically used to correct low potassium levels, but it is not directly related to managing magnesium sulfate toxicity.
B. Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement, typically used to treat or prevent iron deficiency anemia, and does not play a role in managing magnesium sulfate toxicity.
C. Calcium carbonate is an antacid and is not used to counteract magnesium sulfate toxicity.
D. Calcium gluconate is the correct choice. Magnesium sulfate is used in severe preeclampsia to prevent seizures, but it can cause toxicity, leading to respiratory depression, loss of deep tendon reflexes, or even cardiac arrest. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be readily available to reverse these effects if necessary.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Polyhydramnios refers to an excessive amount of amniotic fluid and typically presents with maternal discomfort, dyspnea, and possibly preterm labor, but not with vaginal bleeding as a primary symptom.
B. Placenta previa is the most likely diagnosis based on the assessment findings. It typically presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester, a soft, nontender uterus, no contractions, and a normal fetal heart rate. The bleeding may start spontaneously and often recurs. This fits the client's clinical picture precisely.
C. Placental abruption usually involves painful vaginal bleeding, a firm or tender uterus, and may be associated with uterine contractions or abnormal fetal heart rate patterns. The absence of pain and uterine tenderness in this case makes placental abruption less likely.
D. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy would not be expected at 33 weeks’ gestation. Ectopic pregnancies typically present in the first trimester and are accompanied by severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of hypovolemic shock if ruptured.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. 50mg/hr is not the correct unit for volume, it’s the dose in milligrams.
B. 50 mL/hr is the correct volume to administer to achieve the ordered dose of 2g/hr. Determine the concentration of the solution: The supply is 10g in 250mL. This means the concentration is 10g / 250mL, or 0.04g/mL (since 10g = 10,000mg, this is equivalent to 40mg/mL). Convert the ordered dose to match the concentration: The order is for 2g/hr (which is 2,000mg/hr). Calculate the volume to be infused to deliver the desired dose: Dose = Ordered/concentration= 2000/40= 50 mL/hr
C. 5mg/mL refers to the concentration, not the rate of infusion.
D. 5 mL/hr would administer only 200mg/hr, which is much lower than the ordered dose of 2g/hr.
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