A depressed client has been prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. Which medication may have been prescribed?
Lorazepam (Ativan)
Sertraline (Zoloft)
Amitriptyline (Elavil
Clonazepam (Klonopin)
The Correct Answer is B
B. Sertraline is a commonly prescribed SSRI used to treat depression, anxiety disorders, obsessive- compulsive disorder (OCD), and other conditions. It works by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain, which helps improve mood and reduce symptoms of depression.
A. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used primarily for its anxiolytic (anti-anxiety) effects. It is not an SSRI and is not typically prescribed as a first-line treatment for depression.
C. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), not an SSRI. TCAs are older antidepressants that work on multiple neurotransmitter systems, including serotonin, but they are less commonly prescribed as first-line treatment due to their side effect profile.
D. Clonazepam is also a benzodiazepine used for treating anxiety disorders and certain types of seizures. Like lorazepam, it is not an SSRI and is not typically used as a first-line treatment for depression.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Antidepressants, specifically selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), are commonly used in the treatment of bulimia nervosa. SSRIs such as fluoxetine (Prozac), sertraline (Zoloft), and others are FDA- approved for the treatment of bulimia nervosa due to their effectiveness in reducing binge eating episodes and helping to control the symptoms associated with the disorder.
A. CNS stimulants are not typically used in the treatment of bulimia. They may increase anxiety and have abuse potential, which could exacerbate symptoms.
B. While some anxiolytics may be prescribed for comorbid anxiety disorders often seen with bulimia nervosa, they are not the primary treatment for bulimia itself.
A. CNS stimulants are not typically used in the treatment of bulimia. They may increase anxiety and have abuse potential, which could exacerbate symptoms.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Conversion disorder involves the presence of neurological symptoms that are inconsistent with known neurological or medical conditions. These symptoms often manifest as sensory or motor deficits, such as blindness, paralysis, or seizures, without a clear organic basis. The symptoms are not intentionally produced and are not explained by another medical or psychiatric condition.
A. Hypochondriasis, now known as illness anxiety disorder, involves excessive worry or preoccupation with having a serious illness despite medical reassurance and lack of significant physical symptoms. It does not typically involve sensory or neurological symptoms such as blindness.
C. Malingering involves the intentional production or exaggeration of symptoms for secondary gain, such as financial compensation, avoiding military duty, or obtaining drugs. In malingering, there is typically a clear external incentive for the behavior, which is not evident in the soldier's case.
D. Somatization disorder (now termed somatic symptom disorder) involves multiple and recurrent physical symptoms that are distressing and lead to excessive thoughts, feelings, and behaviors related to these symptoms. It does not typically present with sudden onset of sensory deficits like blindness.
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