A diabetic client presents to the acute care facility for the amputation of two gangrenous digits on her left foot.
Which type of perfusion issue has caused this condition?
Arterial insufficiency.
Stasis.
Venous insufficiency.
Varicose veins.
The Correct Answer is A
This means that the blood flow to the affected area is reduced due to narrowed or blocked arteries. This can cause tissue death or gangrene. Diabetes can
damage the blood vessels and affect blood flow, increasing the risk of gangrene. Choice B. Stasis is wrong because it refers to a condition where blood pools in the veins of the legs, causing swelling and skin changes. It does not cause gangrene by itself.
Choice C. Venous insufficiency is wrong because it refers to a condition where the veins in the legs have problems sending blood back to the heart, causing swelling and skin ulcers. It does not cause gangrene by itself.
Choice D. Varicose veins are wrong because they are enlarged veins that may cause pain or discomfort, but do not cause gangrene by themselves.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The client may have a ruptured appendix, which is a life-threatening complication of appendicitis. A ruptured appendix can cause peritonitis, which is an infection of the lining of the abdomen, or an abscess, which is a collection of pus around the appendix. These conditions require immediate medical attention and surgery to remove the appendix and clean the abdominal cavity.
Choice A is wrong because administering the prescribed medication may mask the symptoms of a ruptured appendix and delay diagnosis and treatment.
Choice B is wrong because repositioning the client and applying a heating pad may increase the risk of rupture or spread of infection.
Choice D is wrong because calling the operating room team is not the nurse’s responsibility and may not be feasible depending on the availability of the surgical team and the operating room.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Hypothermia is a condition where the body temperature drops below 35°C (95°F) and affects the normal functioning of the body. Elderly people are more at risk for hypothermia because they have a lower muscle mass, a decreased
shiver reflex, and lower immunity. They also tend to have a lower body temperature and may not develop fevers when they contract a viral or bacterial illness.
Choice B. Normothermia is wrong because it means having a normal body temperature, which is around 37°C (98.6°F).
Choice C. Hyperthermia is wrong because it means having a high body temperature, which is above 37.5°C (99.5°F).
Hyperthermia can be caused by heat exposure, infection, inflammation, or certain medications.
Choice D. Malignant hyperthermia is wrong because it is a rare genetic disorder that causes a severe reaction to certain anesthetics or muscle relaxants.
It is not related to thermoregulation in elderly people.
Question 5.
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