A full-term, 24-hour-old infant in the nursery regurgitates and suddenly turns cyanotic. Which immediate intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement?
Turn the infant onto the right side.
Give oxygen by positive pressure
Suction the oral and nasal passages.
Stimulate the infant to cry.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. Suction the oral and nasal passages.
Choice A rationale:
Turning the infant onto the right side may not be the most appropriate intervention for cyanosis caused by regurgitation. Cyanosis signifies a lack of oxygen, and simply changing the infant's position might not address the underlying issue.
Choice B rationale:
Giving oxygen by positive pressure is not the immediate intervention needed for regurgitation-induced cyanosis. While administering oxygen is important, the first step should involve clearing the airway to ensure proper oxygenation.
Choice C rationale:
Suctioning the oral and nasal passages is crucial in this situation as the cyanosis is likely due to the infant's airway being obstructed by regurgitated material. Clearing the airway can restore normal breathing and oxygenation.
Choice D rationale:
Stimulating the infant to cry is not the appropriate action when cyanosis is present. Cyanosis indicates a serious problem with oxygenation, and crying may worsen the situation by further compromising the infant's breathing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Troponin I and CK-MB are cardiac enzymes that are released into the bloodstream when the heart muscle is injured or necrotic. Elevated levels of these enzymes indicate that the client has suffered a myocardial infarction (MI) or heart attack. The damaged heart tissue can impair the electrical conduction system of the heart and cause abnormal heart rhythms or dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. The PN should monitor the client's cardiac status closely and report any changes to the charge nurse.
The other options are not correct because:
B. The client is not at risk for pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a pulmonary artery by a blood clot or other material. Pulmonary embolism does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia.
C. The client is not at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. Angina pain does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can be a warning sign of an impending MI.
D. The lab results do not indicate risk factors for transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain due to a clot or plaque. TIA does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or speech difficulties.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Oriented to person only.
Choice A rationale:
A blood pressure of 144/84 mmHg is slightly elevated but not critically high. While it is important to monitor, it does not immediately impact the instructions for morning care.
Choice B rationale:
An oxygen saturation measurement of 95 to 96% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. This is important to monitor but does not require specific changes to morning care instructions.
Choice C rationale:
Being oriented to person only indicates a significant alteration in the client’s cognitive status, which is crucial for the UAP to be aware of. This affects the client’s ability to understand and follow instructions, and may require additional supervision and safety measures during care.
Choice D rationale:
A urinary output of 50 mL/hour is within the normal range (typically 30-50 mL/hour is considered adequate). While it is important to monitor, it does not necessitate immediate changes to morning care instructions.
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