The healthcare provider prescribes cefazolin 500 mg IM every 6 hours. The available vial is labeled, "Cefazolin 1 gram,”. and the instructions for reconstitution state, "For IM use, add 2.5 mL sterile water for injection to provide a total volume of 3.0 mL.”. After reconstitution, how many mL should be administered to the client? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.).
The Correct Answer is ["1.5"]
Step 1: 1 gram = 1000 mg
Step 2: 500 mg ÷ 1000 mg = 0.5
Step 3: 0.5 × 3.0 mL = 1.5 mL
Answer: 1.5 mL
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Troponin I and CK-MB are cardiac enzymes that are released into the bloodstream when the heart muscle is injured or necrotic. Elevated levels of these enzymes indicate that the client has suffered a myocardial infarction (MI) or heart attack. The damaged heart tissue can impair the electrical conduction system of the heart and cause abnormal heart rhythms or dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. The PN should monitor the client's cardiac status closely and report any changes to the charge nurse.
The other options are not correct because:
B. The client is not at risk for pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a pulmonary artery by a blood clot or other material. Pulmonary embolism does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia.
C. The client is not at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. Angina pain does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can be a warning sign of an impending MI.
D. The lab results do not indicate risk factors for transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain due to a clot or plaque. TIA does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or speech difficulties.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The Herpes zoster (shingles) vaccination is recommended for adults aged 60 years and older, regardless of whether they have had shingles or chicken pox before. The vaccine can reduce the risk of developing shingles and its complications, such as postherpetic neuralgia.
The other options are not correct because:
A. The vaccine is useful even if the person has had a case of shingles before, as shingles can recur in some people. The vaccine can prevent or reduce the severity of future episodes.
C. The person needs to get this vaccination even if they have had chickenpox, as shingles are caused by the reactivation of the same virus that causes chickenpox (varicella-zoster virus). The vaccine can boost the immunity against the virus and prevent it from reactivating.
D. The vaccination does not minimize outbreaks of cold sores, as cold sores are caused by a different virus (herpes simplex virus). The vaccine has no effect on this virus or its symptoms.
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