A hospice nurse is visiting with the son of a client who has terminal cancer. The son reports sleeping very little during the past week due to caring for his mother. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
“I can give you information about respite care if you are interested.”.
“You should consider taking a sleeping pill before bed each night.”.
“I am sure you’re doing a great job taking care of your mother.”.
“It is always difficult caring for someone who is terminally ill.”.
The Correct Answer is A
Respite care is a service that provides short-term inpatient care for terminally-ill patients at a professional care facility, such as a hospital, hospice inpatient care facility, or nursing home. It is meant to relieve caregiver stress and offer them rest and time away from caregiving duties. Respite care is covered by Medicare for up to five consecutive days and no more than one respite period in a single billing period.
The nurse should offer this option to the son who is experiencing sleep deprivation due to caring for his mother.
Choice B is wrong because it suggests that the son should rely on medication to cope with his situation, which may not be appropriate or effective.
Sleeping pills may have side effects or interactions with other drugs, and they do not address the underlying cause of the son’s stress and fatigue.
Choice C is wrong because it does not acknowledge the son’s need for support or assistance. It may sound like an empty compliment or a dismissal of the son’s concerns.
The nurse should express empathy and compassion, but also provide information and resources that can help the son.
Choice D is wrong because it does not offer any solution or guidance to the son.
It may also sound like a cliché or a generalization that does not reflect the son’s unique experience.
The nurse should avoid making assumptions or judgments about the son’s feelings or situation, and instead focus on his needs and preferences.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation

Valsartan is a medication that lowers blood pressure by blocking the action of angiotensin II, a hormone that causes blood vessels to constrict. By dilating the blood vessels, valsartan reduces the pressure in the arteries and improves blood flow to the organs. However, if the dose of valsartan is too high, it can cause excessive lowering of blood pressure, which can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, fainting, blurred vision, or nausea. This is especially likely when the client changes position from lying or sitting to standing, which is called orthostatic hypotension. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and pulse in different positions and report any significant changes to the provider. The nurse should also instruct the client to rise slowly from a lying or sitting position and to avoid driving or operating machinery until the effects of the medication wear off.
Choice A is wrong because monitoring the client’s urine output is not a priority action for a client who received an overdose of valsartan.
Valsartan does not have a direct effect on urine output, although it may affect kidney function in some cases. The nurse should monitor the client’s serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen levels to assess kidney function, but this is not as urgent as evaluating the client for orthostatic hypotension.
Choice B is wrong because checking the client for nasal congestion is not a priority action for a client who received an overdose of valsartan.
Nasal congestion is not a common or serious side effect of valsartan. It is more likely to occur with other types of blood pressure medications, such as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or beta blockers.
Choice D is wrong because obtaining the client’s laboratory results is not a priority action for a client who received an overdose of valsartan.
Laboratory results may provide useful information about the client’s electrolyte levels, kidney function, liver function, or blood counts, but they are not as important as assessing the client’s vital signs and symptoms of hypotension. The nurse should obtain the laboratory results after stabilizing the client’s blood pressure and ensuring adequate perfusion to the organs.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because the child is at risk for developing peritonitis, which can cause severe abdominal pain. Scheduled analgesics can provide better pain relief than PRN analgesics.
Choice A is wrong because the child should not be given anything by mouth until bowel sounds return, which can take up to 24 hr after surgery.
Giving clear liquids too soon can cause nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distension.
Choice B is wrong because cromolyn nebulized solution is used to prevent asthma attacks, not to treat appendicitis.
There is no indication that the child has asthma or needs this medication.
Choice C is wrong because applying a warm compress to the operative site can increase inflammation and infection risk.
A cold compress can be used to reduce swelling and pain, but only if prescribed by the provider.
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