A newborn in the nursery is exhibiting signs of intrauterine drug exposure. Which of the following signs/symptoms is the nurse observing? (Select all that apply)
Calm, easy to comfort
Tremors
Persistent shrill cry
Difficult to console
Correct Answer : B,C,D
Choice A) Calm, easy to comfort is incorrect because this is not a sign of intrauterine drug exposure, but rather a sign of normal or healthy newborn behavior. Newborns who are calm and easy to comfort are usually well-adjusted and have a good temperament. They respond positively to soothing techniques such as holding, rocking, or singing.
They do not show signs of distress or withdrawal, which are common in newborns who are exposed to drugs in utero. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice B) Tremors is correct because this is a sign of intrauterine drug exposure that can indicate neurological damage or withdrawal syndrome. Tremors are involuntary shaking or quivering movements of the body or limbs that occur due to abnormal electrical activity in the brain or nervous system. Newborns who are exposed to drugs such as opioids, cocaine, or alcohol in utero may develop tremors as a result of brain injury, hypoxia, hypoglycemia, or seizures. They may also experience tremors as a symptom of neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS), which is a condition that occurs when the newborn stops receiving the drug from the mother and goes through withdrawal. NAS can cause various physical and behavioral problems in the newborn, such as irritability, poor feeding, vomiting, diarrhea, sweating, fever, or seizures. Therefore, this response is clear and accurate.
Choice C) Persistent shrill cry is correct because this is a sign of intrauterine drug exposure that can indicate pain or discomfort in the newborn. Crying is a normal and natural way for newborns to communicate their needs and feelings. However, some newborns who are exposed to drugs such as opioids, cocaine, or alcohol in utero may cry more often, louder, or longer than usual. They may have a high-pitched or piercing cry that is difficult to soothe or stop. This may be due to various factors such as hunger, colic, infection, injury, or withdrawal. A persistent shrill cry can also affect the bonding and attachment between the newborn and the parents or caregivers. Therefore, this response is clear and accurate.
Choice D) Difficult to console is correct because this is a sign of intrauterine drug exposure that can indicate emotional or behavioral problems in the newborn. Newborns who are difficult to console are usually unhappy and restless. They do not respond well to soothing techniques such as holding, rocking, or singing. They may have trouble sleeping, feeding, or interacting with others. They may also show signs of agitation, anxiety, or depression. These problems may be caused by exposure to drugs such as opioids, cocaine, or alcohol in utero, which can affect the development and function of the brain and nervous system. They may also be influenced by the environment and relationship of the newborn with the parents or caregivers. Therefore, this response is clear and accurate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A) Placenta previa is incorrect because this is not a likely complication for a client who has gestational hypertension and reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. It can cause painless, bright red bleeding in the third trimester, especially after intercourse or a pelvic exam. However, it does not cause abdominal pain, as the bleeding is not associated with uterine contractions or separation. Moreover, it is not related to gestational hypertension, which is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice B) Incompetent cervix is incorrect because this is not a possible complication for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has gestational hypertension and reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding.
Incompetent cervix is a condition where the cervix is weak and unable to hold the pregnancy, leading to premature dilation and delivery. It can cause painless, watery vaginal discharge or spotting in the second trimester, followed by rupture of membranes and labor. However, it does not cause abdominal pain or heavy bleeding, as the cervix does not tear or detach from the uterus. Moreover, it is not related to gestational hypertension, which is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice C) Prolapsed cord is incorrect because this is not a common complication for a client who has gestational hypertension and reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Prolapsed cord is a condition where the umbilical cord slips through the cervix and into the vagina before the baby, compressing the cord and cutting off the blood supply and oxygen to the baby. It can cause variable or prolonged fetal heart rate decelerations, visible or palpable cord in the vagina, or fetal distress. However, it does not cause abdominal pain or bleeding, as the cord does not rupture or bleed. Moreover, it is not related to gestational hypertension, which is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice D) Abruptio placentae is correct because this is a probable complication for a client who has gestational hypertension and reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery, causing hemorrhage and hypoxia for the mother and the baby. It can cause severe, constant abdominal pain, dark red bleeding, uterine tenderness or rigidity, fetal distress or demise, or maternal shock or coagulopathy. It can be triggered by gestational hypertension, which is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy and increases the risk of placental abruption by 25%. Therefore, this response is relevant and accurate.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A) "Oh, don't worry about that. It's okay." is incorrect because this is not a helpful or informative response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response does not explain what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, why it is there, or how long it will last. It also does not address the father's concern or curiosity, and may make him feel dismissed or ignored. Therefore, this response is inadequate and inappropriate.
Choice B) "That's meconium, which is your baby's first stool. It's normal." is correct because this is a clear and accurate response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response explains what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, which is meconium. Meconium is a substance that consists of amniotic fluid, mucus, bile, and other waste products that accumulate in the baby's intestines before birth. It is usually passed within the first 24 to 48 hours after birth, and then replaced by transitional or regular stools. Meconium has a dark green or black color and a thick, sticky consistency. It does not have any odor or bacteria. It is normal and harmless for most babies, unless they inhale it during delivery, which can cause breathing problems or infection. Therefore, this response reassures and educates the father about his baby's condition.
Choice C) "That's transitional stool." is incorrect because this is not a true or complete response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response does not identify what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, which is meconium. Transitional stool is a type of stool that appears after meconium and before regular stools. It usually occurs between the second and fifth day after birth, and then changes to yellow or brown stools. Transitional stool has a greenish-brown color and a loose, seedy consistency. It may have some odor or bacteria. It indicates that the baby's digestive system is maturing and adapting to breast milk or formula. Therefore, this response confuses and misleads the father about his baby's condition.
Choice D) "That means your baby is bleeding internally." is incorrect because this is not a valid or appropriate response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response does not describe what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, which is meconium. Bleeding internally means that blood vessels are damaged or ruptured inside the body, causing blood loss and shock. This can be caused by various factors such as trauma, infection, clotting disorder, or medication. Bleeding internally can manifest as blood in the stool, urine, vomit, or saliva. However, it does not cause black, sticky stools like meconium. Moreover, this response scares and alarms the father without any evidence or reason. Therefore, this response is false and unethical.
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