A nurse at a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy.The client tells the nurse that she is upset because, although she and her husband planned this pregnancy, she has been having many doubts and second thoughts about the upcoming changes in her life.
Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Ambivalent feelings are quite common for women early in pregnancy.

Have you spoken to your mother about these feelings?

Perhaps you should see a counselor to discuss these feelings further.

Don't worry.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Ambivalent feelings are common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes and the significant life adjustments that accompany pregnancy. It is normal for pregnant women to experience mixed emotions as they adapt to the reality of impending parenthood.

Choice B rationale

Suggesting the client speak to her mother about these feelings may not be appropriate as it could dismiss the client's current feelings and needs. While family support is valuable, the nurse should first address the client's concerns directly.

Choice C rationale

Referring the client to a counselor may be necessary in some cases, but it is essential to first normalize the client's feelings. It helps in providing immediate reassurance and understanding before suggesting further intervention.

Choice D rationale

Telling the client "Don't worry, you will be fine once the baby is born" is dismissive and minimizes her current concerns. It is important to validate her feelings and provide supportive responses to help her cope with her emotions.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

During pregnancy, the body’s production of red blood cells usually increases to meet the increased demands of the growing fetus. Therefore, a drop in hematocrit is not typically due to insufficient red blood cell production.

Choice B rationale

While iron is essential during pregnancy, a reduction in hematocrit levels at 16 weeks' gestation is primarily due to increased plasma volume, rather than iron deficiency. Nutritional counseling may still be beneficial but isn't the primary explanation for this change.

Choice C rationale

A hematocrit level of 34% at 16 weeks is generally not considered indicative of a severe problem. Instead, it is a physiological response to increased plasma volume, known as dilutional anemia of pregnancy.

Choice D rationale

The primary reason for a lower hematocrit count during pregnancy is the increase in blood plasma volume, leading to dilutional anemia. This is a normal adaptation to pregnancy that ensures adequate blood flow to the fetus.

A. 50% of the offspring have a chance of developing the disease from the affected parent. B. Diseases are transmitted from a carrier mother to her son. C. All of the offspring will develop the disease. D. 50% of the offspring will be carriers of the disease from the affected parent.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

50% of the offspring have a chance of developing the disease from the affected parent. Autosomal dominant inheritance means that a single copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the disorder. Thus, each child of an affected parent has a 50% chance of inheriting the condition.

Choice B rationale

Diseases transmitted from a carrier mother to her son typically describe X-linked recessive inheritance, not autosomal dominant. In autosomal dominant conditions, both males and females can be affected, and it doesn't depend on the sex of the parent transmitting the gene.

Choice C rationale

All of the offspring will develop the disease is incorrect. In autosomal dominant inheritance, there is a 50% chance of passing the altered gene to the offspring, not 100%.

Choice D rationale

50% of the offspring will be carriers of the disease from the affected parent is incorrect for autosomal dominant inheritance. There are no "carriers" in autosomal dominant diseases; individuals either have the disease or they don't, based on whether they inherit the altered gene.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A pregnant client, at 16 weeks' gestation, has a hematocrit of 34%. Her pre-pregnancy hematocrit was 40%. Which of the following statements by the nurse best explains this change?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A male newborn is diagnosed with polycystic kidneys which requires autosomal dominant transmission.One of the parents is believed to have this genetic disease. The nurse's teaching should be based on the fact that with autosomal dominant inheritance:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client during an initial prenatal visit.The client's last menstrual period was 18 weeks ago.Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

A newborn weighs 3400 grams. The healthcare provider has ordered 0.2 mg/kg of atropine sulfate subcutaneously. Based on the label below, how much will the nurse administer in mL? (Write in your answer).

A client is 10 weeks pregnant and is experiencing nausea each day.Which strategy would the nurse NOT recommend to the client?

A nurse caring for a client in the prenatal clinic states that the patient is clearly pregnant because both the mother and examiner are able to feel the baby move.Which of the following signs of pregnancy is occurring?

A nurse is caring for a client who is coming in for her first prenatal visit and it is estimated to be 9 weeks gestation.An ultrasound is scheduled.The nurse should explain to the client that the ultrasound is being done today to assess for which of the following?

A nurse caring for a client in the prenatal clinic states that the patient is clearly pregnant because both the mother and examiner are able to feel the baby move.Which of the following signs of pregnancy is occurring?

A nurse is speaking with a client who is 6 weeks' gestation.The client tells the nurse that she smokes one pack per day, but is trying to quit.The nurse should explain that newborns born to women who smoke are at risk for: