A nurse enters a client’s room to witness an informed consent for a gastroscopy. The client states he does not understand the procedure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Educate the client about the risks of refusing the procedure

Complete the incident report

Inform the provider that the client requires clarification about the procedure

Answer the client’s questions concerning the procedure

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

a. Educate the client about the risks of refusing the procedure:

This option suggests providing information about the potential consequences of not undergoing the gastroscopy. While educating the client about risks is essential, the immediate concern is the client's lack of understanding about the procedure itself.

b. Complete the incident report:

Filling out an incident report is typically reserved for situations where there has been an actual incident, such as a medical error or adverse event. In this case, the client's lack of understanding does not constitute an incident but rather a need for clarification.

c. Inform the provider that the client requires clarification about the procedure:

This is the correct action. It involves escalating the issue to the provider responsible for performing the gastroscopy. The provider can then address the client's concerns, answer questions, and provide additional information to ensure informed consent.

d. Answer the client’s questions concerning the procedure:

While answering the client's questions is important, it's not solely the nurse's responsibility to ensure the client understands the procedure. The provider, who will perform the gastroscopy, should be informed of the client's confusion so they can address it effectively.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

a. A client who reports night sweats and fever for the last week:

Night sweats and fever can be indicative of various underlying conditions, including infections. While these symptoms may require medical attention, they do not necessarily indicate an immediately life-threatening condition compared to other options.

b. A client who has compound fractures of the tibia and humerus:

Compound fractures involve broken bones that penetrate through the skin, leading to a risk of severe bleeding, infection, and other complications. This client's injuries are significant and require immediate attention to prevent further complications and provide pain management and stabilization.

c. A client who reports severe vomiting and diarrhea:

Severe vomiting and diarrhea can lead to dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and other complications, especially if prolonged or accompanied by other symptoms such as fever. While this client requires prompt assessment and treatment, the urgency may not be as high as for other conditions.

d. A client who has soot markings around each naris following a house fire:

Soot markings around the nares (nostrils) suggest inhalation injury, which can lead to airway compromise, respiratory distress, and other serious complications. This client requires immediate assessment and intervention to ensure airway patency, oxygenation, and respiratory support.

A. A client who is 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1 B. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has a negative Coombs’ titer C. A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test D. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

a. A client who is 37 weeks gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1:

An L/S (Lecithin/Sphingomyelin) ratio of 2:1 indicates mature fetal lungs, which is a positive indicator. While this client may be nearing term, the presence of mature fetal lungs does not necessarily warrant an interdisciplinary care conference unless there are other complications or high-risk factors present.

b. A client who is 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs's titer:

A negative Coombs's titer suggests that the client does not have antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells, which is a normal finding. At 28 weeks gestation, this client may not require an interdisciplinary care conference unless there are other significant complications or risk factors present.

c. A client who is at 39 weeks gestation and has a negative contraction stress test:

A negative contraction stress test indicates that the fetus is not experiencing distress during uterine contractions, which is a reassuring finding. At 39 weeks gestation, while this client may be nearing term, a negative contraction stress test alone may not warrant an interdisciplinary care conference unless there are other concerning factors present.

d. A client who is at 35 weeks gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6:

A biophysical profile (BPP) of 6 is on the lower end of the scale and may indicate potential fetal compromise or risk. This client may benefit from further evaluation and possibly closer monitoring, which could warrant an interdisciplinary care conference to discuss management and potential interventions.

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