A nurse in a provider's office is reinforcing teaching about home care with a client who has mild preeclampsia. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Perform daily fetal movement counts.
Limit fluid intake to 1,000 mL/day.
Limit sodium intake to 2,000 mg/day.
Rest in bed in the supine position.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should include teaching the client to perform daily fetal movement counts because it is an essential aspect of monitoring the baby's well-being and assessing fetal distress. Fetal movement counts help the client become familiar with their baby's normal patterns of movement, allowing them to detect any changes or decreased movements promptly. This can be crucial in identifying potential issues with the baby's health and seeking timely medical attention.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not advise limiting fluid intake to 1,000 mL/day for a client with mild preeclampsia. Adequate hydration is important during pregnancy, and excessive fluid restriction can lead to dehydration, which is harmful to both the mother and the baby. Preeclampsia can cause fluid retention and high blood pressure, but complete fluid restriction is not the appropriate approach for managing the condition.
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should not suggest limiting sodium intake to 2,000 mg/day for a client with mild preeclampsia. While reducing sodium intake can be beneficial for some individuals with hypertension, it is not the primary focus in managing mild preeclampsia. The mainstay of treatment for mild preeclampsia typically involves close monitoring, rest, and potential medications to control blood pressure if necessary.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should not recommend that the client rest in bed in the supine position. During pregnancy, especially with preeclampsia, lying flat on the back (supine position) can lead to a condition called supine hypotensive syndrome. This occurs when the weight of the uterus presses on the vena cava, reducing blood flow back to the heart and potentially causing a drop in blood pressure and decreased blood flow to the baby.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should monitor the urinary output of the client as it can be an important indicator of hydration and renal function. However, in this specific scenario, the administration of oxytocin via IV infusion after a vaginal delivery requires a different focus for evaluating medication effectiveness.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should primarily assess the fundal consistency to evaluate the effectiveness of oxytocin. Oxytocin is often administered after childbirth to promote uterine contractions and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Checking the fundal consistency helps determine if the uterus is contracting appropriately. A firm fundus indicates effective contractions, which are essential for controlling bleeding and preventing complications.
Choice C rationale:
Monitoring the pulse rate is a vital aspect of patient care, but it may not be the most relevant parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of oxytocin. Pulse rate can give information about the client's cardiovascular status and general well-being, but it does not directly assess the medication's impact on uterine contractions.
Choice D rationale:
Similarly, keeping an eye on blood pressure is crucial for patient safety and detecting potential issues like hypertension. However, it is not the primary parameter for evaluating the effectiveness of oxytocin. Blood pressure monitoring is essential for overall health assessment but does not directly relate to the medication's intended effect.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale :
The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.
Choice C rationale
Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Choice D rationale
Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.
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