A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has a deep laceration on her left lower forearm and is bleeding heavily from the wound. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform first?

Place the client in a modified Trendelenburg position.

Apply a tourniquet just above the wound.

Start two large-bore IV catheters.

Apply pressure directly to the wound.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale:

Placing the client in a modified Trendelenburg position is not the first intervention for a client with a deep laceration and heavy bleeding. This position involves tilting the patient with the head lower than the feet and is typically used to improve venous return in certain situations, such as hypovolemic shock. However, for a bleeding wound, the priority is to control the bleeding itself.

Choice B rationale:

Applying a tourniquet just above the wound is a drastic measure and is generally not the first intervention for controlling bleeding. Tourniquets are used when direct pressure and other methods are unsuccessful, as they can lead to complications such as tissue damage and ischemia if not used correctly.

Choice C rationale:

Starting two large-bore IV catheters is important for fluid resuscitation in cases of significant bleeding. However, it is not the first intervention. Directly controlling the bleeding takes precedence to prevent further blood loss.

Choice D rationale:

Applying pressure directly to the wound is the correct answer. This is the initial and immediate action to take when dealing with a heavily bleeding wound. Applying pressure helps to stem the bleeding by promoting clot formation and reducing blood loss. It is a vital step in managing the client's condition and preventing further deterioration.

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Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Drowsiness alone may not be a reliable indicator of pain, as it can result from various factors such as medications or the postoperative recovery process. While pain might cause drowsiness in some cases, it is not a definitive nonverbal sign of pain.

Choice B rationale:

Grimacing is a nonverbal behavior that often indicates pain or discomfort. It involves facial expressions of pain, such as frowning or wincing. Grimacing is a significant indicator that the nurse should consider in assessing the client's pain level.

Choice C rationale:

Screaming is a more overt expression of pain and discomfort. However, it is less common in a postoperative setting and might also be associated with anxiety or other emotional states. While it can indicate pain, it's not as reliable a marker as grimacing, moaning, or restlessness.

Choice D rationale:

Moaning is a nonverbal behavior that can signal pain in a postoperative client. It's an audible expression of discomfort and should be considered as a potential indication of pain.

Choice E rationale:

Restlessness can be an indication of pain as well. The client may shift positions frequently or exhibit signs of agitation in response to pain. However, restlessness can also have other causes, such as anxiety or medication effects.

A. Petechiae on the chest. B. Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. C. Oxygen saturation level 96%. D. Respiratory alkalosis.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest.

Choice A rationale:

Petechiae on the chest (Choice A) are tiny red or purple spots that appear on the skin due to small blood vessel breakage. They are not typically associated with COPD and emphysema. Petechiae are more often related to conditions like thrombocytopenia or certain infections, where blood clotting is impaired.

Choice B rationale:

Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest, often referred to as "barrel chest," is a characteristic finding in clients with COPD and emphysema. This occurs due to the hyperinflation of the lungs and the loss of elasticity in the lung tissues, which causes the chest to become rounded and the ribs to be positioned more horizontally.

Choice C rationale:

An oxygen saturation level of 96% (Choice C) is within the normal range for oxygen saturation. However, while it's important for clients with COPD to maintain adequate oxygen levels, this value doesn't specifically correlate with the client's symptoms of a wet cough and occasional shortness of breath.

Choice D rationale:

Respiratory alkalosis (Choice D) involves an increase in blood pH due to decreased levels of carbon dioxide (hypocapnia) caused by hyperventilation. While respiratory alkalosis can occur in clients with COPD due to compensatory hyperventilation, it is not a direct assessment finding related to the client's symptoms of a wet cough and occasional shortness of breath.

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A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has a deep laceration on her left lower forearm and is bleeding heavily from the wound. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is monitoring a client who is postoperative and unable to respond to questions. Which of the following nonverbal behaviors should the nurse identify as an indication that the client has pain? (Select all that apply.).

Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]

Explanation

A nurse on a Medical-Surgical unit is performing an assessment on a client who has COPD with emphysema. The client reports that he has a frequent wet cough and is occasionally short-of-breath. The nurse should anticipate which of the following assessment findings for this client?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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