A nurse in an urgent care clinic is contributing to the plan of care for a child who has suspected epiglottitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to include?
Initiate contact precautions.
Monitor pulse oximetry.
Obtain a throat culture.
Administer epinephrine IM.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
The nurse should not initiate contact precautions for a child with suspected epiglottitis. Epiglottitis is primarily caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, and it spreads through respiratory droplets. Contact precautions are not necessary as the transmission occurs through droplets, and standard precautions should be sufficient.
Choice B reason:
The nurse should monitor pulse oximetry. Epiglottitis is a condition where the epiglottis becomes inflamed and swollen, potentially blocking the airway. Monitoring the child's pulse oximetry helps assess their oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in determining if there is adequate oxygenation. If the oxygen saturation drops significantly, immediate intervention might be needed to maintain the child's airway and prevent hypoxia.
Choice C reason:
Obtaining a throat culture is not an appropriate intervention for suspected epiglottitis. In cases of suspected epiglottitis, the priority is to ensure the child's airway is maintained and that they receive appropriate medical attention promptly. Throat culture collection involves swabbing the throat to identify the infectious agent and is not a priority in this urgent situation.
Choice D reason:
Administering epinephrine IM is not indicated for suspected epiglottitis. Epinephrine is typically used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) and not for managing epiglottitis. The primary focus in epiglottitis is securing the airway and providing appropriate medical treatment, which might include antibiotics and respiratory support.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C reason: The correct answer is choice C, "I need to use my levalbuterol inhaler before I exercise.” This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because using the levalbuterol inhaler before exercise is a preventive measure for asthma symptoms. Levalbuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist that helps to relax the airway muscles and improve breathing. By using it before exercise, the client can prevent exercise-induced bronchoconstriction and reduce the risk of asthma symptoms during physical activity.
Choice A reason:
The statement "I will wait 15 seconds between puffs when using my levalbuterol inhaler” is incorrect. The recommended wait time between puffs of a levalbuterol inhaler is typically 30- 60 seconds to allow the medication to be fully absorbed and work effectively. Waiting only 15 seconds might not provide the desired therapeutic effect.
Choice B reason:
The statement "I need to use my fluticasone inhaler when I start to wheeze during exercise” is incorrect. Fluticasone is a corticosteroid inhaler used for long-term control of asthma symptoms, not for immediate relief during wheezing episodes. The client should use the fluticasone inhaler daily as prescribed to prevent asthma symptoms, including wheezing, from occurring in the first place.
Choice D reason:
The statement "I will stop using my fluticasone inhaler if I experience restlessness” is incorrect. Fluticasone is a long-term controller medication, and abruptly stopping it can lead to uncontrolled asthma symptoms and potentially exacerbate the condition. Restlessness might be a side effect of the medication, but it is not a reason to discontinue its use. If the client experiences any concerning side effects, they should consult their healthcare provider for appropriate management.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D reason: The nurse should report the laboratory result of 2+ proteinuria (Choice D) to the healthcare provider. Proteinuria is the presence of excess protein in the urine, which can indicate a potential kidney problem or a complication related to pregnancy, such as preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs like the liver and kidneys. Therefore, this result needs immediate attention to assess the client's condition properly and take appropriate actions to ensure the safety and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
Choice A reason:
The 2-hour postprandial glucose level of 105 mg/dL (Choice A) is within the normal range. During pregnancy, glucose levels are carefully monitored to check for gestational diabetes. In this case, the result falls within the acceptable range, indicating that the client's glucose levels are stable, and gestational diabetes is not a concern at this time.
Choice B reason:
A negative group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic result (Choice B) is actually a positive finding. It means that the client does not have an active infection with group B streptococcus, which is essential information for the management of labor and delivery. Therefore, there is no need to report this result to the provider as it indicates a favorable condition.
Choice C reason:
The hemoglobin (Hgb) level of 13 g/dL (Choice C) is within the normal range for a non- pregnant adult female. During pregnancy, blood volume increases, and hemoglobin levels can naturally decrease. However, the provided value is still within the acceptable range, indicating that the client's blood oxygen-carrying capacity is adequate and there is no immediate concern.
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