A nurse in the ED is assessing a client who is taking warfarin and experiencing rectal bleeding. Which of the following drugs should the nurse anticipate administering to the client?

Heparin

Vitamin K

Iron

Protamine

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason:

Administering Heparin to a patient who is already taking Warfarin and experiencing rectal bleeding is not appropriate. Heparin is an anticoagulant, similar to Warfarin, and would not help in reversing the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Instead, it could potentially exacerbate the bleeding.

Choice B reason:

Vitamin K is the correct answer because it acts as an antidote to Warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so administering Vitamin K helps to reverse the effects of Warfarin and promote blood clotting, which is necessary to control the rectal bleeding in this patient.

Choice C reason:

Iron is not the appropriate treatment for rectal bleeding due to Warfarin. While iron supplements can help with anemia (which might result from chronic blood loss), they do not address the immediate need to reverse the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin and stop the active bleeding.

Choice D reason:

Protamine is used to reverse the effects of Heparin, not Warfarin. Therefore, administering Protamine would not be effective in addressing the Warfarin-induced rectal bleeding in this patient.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Administering Atropine can increase the heart rate, but it is not the immediate first action. The priority is to stop the stimulus causing the vagal response, which in this case is the suctioning.

Choice B reason:

Calling the healthcare provider is important, but the immediate action should be to stop the suctioning to eliminate the cause of the vagal response. Once the immediate issue is addressed, notifying the provider can follow.

Choice C reason:

Continuing to clear the airway can exacerbate the vagal response and worsen the patient's condition. The immediate action should be to stop the suctioning.

Choice D reason:

Stopping the suctioning is the best immediate action to take when the patient becomes diaphoretic, nauseous, and experiences a significant drop in heart rate. This response is likely due to vagal stimulation, and stopping the suctioning will help alleviate the symptoms.

A. Hypoxia not responsive to oxygen therapy B. Elevated lactate levels C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Severe, unexplained electrolyte imbalance

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Hypoxia not responsive to oxygen therapy is a hallmark early sign of ARDS. ARDS is characterized by acute onset of hypoxemia that does not improve with supplemental oxygen. This refractory hypoxemia is due to severe inflammation and increased permeability of the alveolar-capillary barrier, leading to pulmonary edema and impaired gas exchange.

Choice B reason:

Elevated lactate levels can indicate tissue hypoxia and metabolic stress, which are concerning findings in critically ill patients. However, elevated lactate is not specific to ARDS and can be seen in various conditions, including sepsis and shock. It is not the primary early indicator of ARDS.

Choice C reason:

Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with ARDS. ARDS usually involves respiratory failure, which may lead to respiratory acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis can occur in other conditions, such as excessive loss of gastric acid or diuretic use, but it is not an early sign of ARDS.

Choice D reason:

Severe, unexplained electrolyte imbalance can occur in critically ill patients but is not specific to ARDS. Electrolyte imbalances can result from various factors, including fluid shifts, renal dysfunction, and medication effects. These imbalances do not serve as an early diagnostic indicator of ARDS.

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A nurse in the ED is assessing a client who is taking warfarin and experiencing rectal bleeding. Which of the following drugs should the nurse anticipate administering to the client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

During routine suctioning of a client with an endotracheal tube, the patient becomes diaphoretic and nauseous, and the heart rate decreases to 39 beats/min. What is the nurse's best action at this time?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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