A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a 52-year-old male client experiencing chest pain. Below are the exhibits to guide your answer:
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify:
- The condition the client is most likely experiencing.
- Two actions the nurse should take.
- Two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.
The Correct Answer is []
Condition: Myocardial infarction.
2 actions:
Administer oxygen via nasal cannula 2 L/min,
Request a prescription for aspirin 325 mg.
2 parameters:
Vital signs,
Electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm.
Rationale for correct condition: A myocardial infarction is indicated by the elevated troponin levels and ST elevation on the ECG. The client’s symptoms of chest pain, elevated heart rate, and low oxygen saturation support this diagnosis. Prompt identification and treatment are crucial to minimize heart damage. The medical history of hypertension and coronary artery disease increases the likelihood. Immediate interventions can significantly improve outcomes.
Rationale for actions: Administer oxygen to improve oxygenation and reduce myocardial workload. Requesting aspirin helps prevent further clot formation. Morphine alleviates pain but may obscure symptoms, making it less urgent. Nitroglycerin relieves chest pain by vasodilation but is secondary. Verapamil is less immediate for acute myocardial infarction management. Vital signs reflect hemodynamic status and response to treatment. ECG rhythm detects ongoing ischemia or arrhythmias. Monitoring WBC count is less relevant acutely. Platelet count is stable; not the focus in immediate management.
Rationale for parameters: Vital signs ensure hemodynamic stability and detect hypotension or shock. ECG rhythm monitors arrhythmias and ongoing ischemia, critical in myocardial infarction. WBC count indicates infection or inflammation, less immediate concern. Platelet count is important for bleeding risks but less immediate. Chronic stable angina presents with predictable, non-severe pain. Ischemic stroke symptoms differ; focus on neurological deficits. Cardiogenic shock would present with more severe hypotension and signs of organ failure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Measuring blood pressure manually is important in assessing the patient's hemodynamic status, but it is not the priority intervention in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The priority is to address dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
Choice B rationale
Administering intravenous fluids is the priority intervention for a client with DKA. Rapid, deep respirations (Kussmaul breathing) indicate severe metabolic acidosis and dehydration. IV fluids help to correct fluid deficit, improve perfusion, and decrease blood glucose levels.
Choice C rationale
Oxygen therapy may be beneficial if the client is hypoxic, but it is not the priority intervention for DKA. The primary issue is fluid deficit and metabolic acidosis.
Choice D rationale
Administering subcutaneous insulin is essential for managing hyperglycemia in DKA, but it should be done after initiating IV fluids to avoid rapid shifts in electrolyte balance.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Stress and anxiety can contribute to gastrointestinal issues, but they are not the most likely cause of a duodenal ulcer.
Choice B rationale
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause gastrointestinal irritation and ulcers, but Helicobacter pylori infection is a more common cause.
Choice C rationale
Excessive alcohol consumption can irritate the stomach lining and contribute to ulcer formation, but Helicobacter pylori infection is more likely to be the primary cause.
Choice D rationale
Helicobacter pylori infection is the most common cause of duodenal ulcers. The bacteria damage the protective lining of the stomach and duodenum, leading to ulcer formation. .
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