A nurse is caring for a client who is 5 hours postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The nurse notes that the client's indwelling urinary catheter has not drained in the past hour. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Adjust the rate of the bladder irrigant.
Irrigate the catheter.
Check the tubing for kinks.
Notify the provider.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason:
Adjusting the rate of the bladder irrigant may be necessary if there is an issue with the flow or the amount of fluid, but it is not the first action to take. The nurse must first ensure that there is no mechanical obstruction causing the lack of drainage.
Choice B reason:
Irrigating the catheter could be the next step if checking the tubing does not resolve the issue. However, it is not the first action to take because if there is a kink in the tubing, irrigation will not be effective and could potentially cause harm.
Choice C reason:
The first action the nurse should take is to check the tubing for kinks because this is a common and easily correctable cause of obstruction in catheter drainage. If the tubing is kinked, straightening it may allow urine to drain properly.
Choice D reason:
Notifying the provider is important if the other interventions do not resolve the issue. However, it is not the first action to take. The nurse should first perform basic troubleshooting steps to identify and correct any simple mechanical issues with the catheter system.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
While a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL is slightly above the normal range, it is not typically considered an emergency for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. This client would require monitoring and potential adjustment of their diabetes management plan, but it does not necessitate immediate assessment.
Choice B reason:
For a client with diabetes insipidus, an intake of 1,500 mL and an output of 1,600 mL in 24 hours is within expected parameters, considering the condition's characteristic polyuria and polydipsia. This client would need ongoing monitoring to maintain fluid balance but is not the highest priority for immediate assessment.
Choice C reason:
A heart rate of 100/min and tremors in a client with Graves' disease could indicate that their condition is not well-controlled. However, these symptoms are not as acutely concerning as those of a stroke and would be addressed after more urgent needs are met.
Choice D reason:
A client who has had a left-sided stroke and reports a severe headache and confusion is exhibiting signs of a possible acute neurological change or complication, such as increased intracranial pressure or hemorrhage. This client requires immediate assessment and intervention due to the potential for rapid deterioration and life-threatening complications.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Dark hair is not a recognized risk factor for developing malignant melanoma. Melanoma is more commonly associated with individuals having fair skin, light hair, and light-colored eyes because they have less melanin to protect their skin from UV radiation.
Choice B reason:
While female gender is not a direct risk factor for malignant melanoma, it is important to note that melanoma rates can vary between genders at different ages. Generally, before age 50, melanoma rates are higher in women, but by age 65, rates are twice as high in men.
Choice C reason:
A history of chronic skin irritation or inflammation can potentially increase the risk of developing skin cancer, including melanoma. Chronic inflammation can lead to DNA damage and contribute to the development of cancerous cells.
Choice D reason:
Age 19 to 30 years is not considered a high-risk age group for malignant melanoma. The risk of melanoma increases with age, and it is most frequently diagnosed in older adults, although it is not uncommon in younger people.
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