A nurse is caring for a 28-year-old female client who is 2 days postpartum in the postpartum unit following a cesarean birth. For each finding below, click to specify if the finding is consistent with the disease process of lactational mastitis, postpartum endometritis, or postpartum hemorrhage. Each finding may support more than one disease process.
For each finding below, click to specify if the finding is consistent with the disease process of lactational mastitis, postpartum endometritis, or postpartum hemorrhage. Each finding may support more than one disease process.
Fever
Foul-smelling lochia
Tachycardia
Uterine fundus above the umbilicus
Uterine tenderness
Increased WBC count
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A,B"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B,C"},"D":{"answers":"C"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"A,B,C"}}
- Postpartum Endometritis is the most likely concern here, considering the fever, foul-smelling lochia, uterine tenderness, and tachycardia.
- Postpartum Hemorrhage is a possibility due to the boggy uterus and tachycardia, though her bleeding appears moderate.
- Lactational Mastitis is unlikely since the patient has no breast tenderness or redness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
Upon reviewing the client’s medical record, the nurse determines that the client is at risk for developing choriocarcinoma and thyrotoxicosis.
Rationale for correct answers
Choriocarcinoma is a malignant form of gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) that arises from a molar pregnancy, as evidenced by grape-like vesicles seen on ultrasound and excessively elevated beta-hCG (normal in pregnancy: up to 100,000 mIU/mL by late first trimester). This condition can lead to metastases if not diagnosed and treated promptly.
Thyrotoxicosis occurs due to excess beta-hCG, which stimulates thyroid hormone production. This is supported by the slightly elevated free T4 levels, a common feature of molar pregnancy-related hyperthyroidism.
Rationale for incorrect Response 1 options
- Preterm labor: The client is at 20 weeks with no contractions noted, and cervical changes are not reported.
- Placenta previa: Characterized by painless bright red bleeding later in pregnancy; this client has dark brown discharge consistent with molar pregnancy.
- Cardiac arrhythmia: No evidence of electrolyte abnormalities or arrhythmogenic conditions such as hyperkalemia.
Rationale for incorrect Response 2 options
- Preeclampsia: Normal blood pressure (≥140/90 mm Hg would be concerning); no proteinuria.
- Urinary tract infection: No leukocytes, nitrites, or dysuria reported.
- Hypoglycemia: Normal serum glucose levels; vomiting history does not indicate hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Edema, particularly peripheral edema, is a common clinical sign of preeclampsia. It results from fluid shifts due to increased vascular permeability and decreased plasma protein levels associated with the disease process.
Choice B rationale
Glycosuria, the presence of glucose in the urine, is not typically a symptom of preeclampsia. It is more commonly associated with gestational diabetes, a separate condition of pregnancy characterized by impaired glucose tolerance.
Choice C rationale
Proteinuria, the presence of significant amounts of protein in the urine (typically ≥300 mg in a 24-hour urine collection), is a hallmark sign of preeclampsia. It reflects glomerular endothelial damage and increased permeability.
Choice D rationale
Hypertension, defined as a blood pressure of ≥140/90 mmHg on two separate occasions at least 4 hours apart after 20 weeks of gestation, is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia. It results from systemic vasoconstriction.
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