A nurse in the emergency department is planning care for a client who had a myocardial infarction and is receiving thrombolytic therapy with an WV infusion of alteplase. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Administer aspirin instead of acetaminophen for fever

Ambulate the client as often as tolerated

Administer a sodium phosphate enema for constipation

Monitor for changes in level of consciousness

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

When planning care for a client who had a myocardial infarction and is receiving thrombolytic therapy with an IV infusion of alteplase, the nurse should include the intervention of monitoring for changes in the client's level of consciousness.

Alteplase is a thrombolytic medication used to break down blood clots in certain medical emergencies, such as acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) or ischemic stroke. One of the potential complications of thrombolytic therapy, including alteplase, is bleeding. The medication's action of breaking down blood clots can also affect the body's natural clotting mechanisms, increasing the risk of bleeding.

Bleeding in the brain is a severe and potentially life-threatening complication associated with thrombolytic therapy. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client for any signs of intracranial bleeding, such as changes in the level of consciousness, confusion, severe headache, slurred speech, or weakness on one side of the body.

Let's go through the other options:

A. Administer aspirin instead of acetaminophen for fever: While aspirin is commonly used in the management of myocardial infarction, it is not specifically indicated for fever. Acetaminophen is the preferred antipyretic medication for fever management in most cases, and it does not interfere with the action of thrombolytic therapy.

B. Ambulate the client as often as tolerated: While early ambulation is beneficial for clients with myocardial infarction, it may not be appropriate during thrombolytic therapy. Thrombolytic therapy carries an increased risk of bleeding, and ambulation may be limited or contraindicated during the treatment period, depending on the client's overall condition and bleeding risk.

C. Administer a sodium phosphate enema for constipation: The administration of a sodium phosphate enema is not a specific intervention related to thrombolytic therapy or myocardial infarction. Bowel management is important for client comfort and overall well-being, but it is not a priority intervention in the immediate care of a client undergoing thrombolytic therapy.

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Correct Answer is ["200"]

Explanation

To determine the infusion rate in mL/h, we need to divide the total volume (100 mL) by the total time (30 minutes) and then convert the result to hours.

100 mL / 30 min = 3.33 mL/min

To convert minutes to hours, we multiply by 60:

3.33 mL/min * 60 min/h = 199.8 mL/h

Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the IV infusion pump to deliver 200 mL/h.

A. Hgb 14 g/dL B. WBC count 10,000/mm3 C. INR 2.0 D. Platelets 150,000/mm3

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Hemoglobin level: The hemoglobin level measures the amount of hemoglobin, the oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells, in the blood. Warfarin is not directly responsible for increasing or decreasing the hemoglobin level. While warfarin can lead to bleeding complications in some cases, it does not specifically target the hemoglobin level, so it is not a direct indicator of the medication's effectiveness.

B. Platelet count: The platelet count measures the number of platelets in the blood, which are essential for blood clotting. Warfarin does not directly affect platelet production or count. It works by inhibiting the production of certain clotting factors, not by affecting platelets. Monitoring the platelet count is important, but it is not an indicator of warfarin's effectiveness in preventing excessive clotting.

C. Prothrombin time (PT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are coagulation tests used to assess different types of anticoagulant medications, such as heparin. Warfarin's effect is measured using the International Normalized Ratio (INR). PT and aPTT are not specific to warfarin therapy and are not used to monitor its effectiveness. The INR is the appropriate laboratory test for assessing the efficacy of warfarin therapy.

D. International Normalized Ratio (INR): This is the correct answer. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. The INR measures the time it takes for the blood to clot and reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. A therapeutic INR within the target range (e.g., INR = 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications) indicates that warfarin has been effective in preventing excessive clotting and reducing the risk of complications associated with blood clots.

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A nurse in the emergency department is planning care for a client who had a myocardial infarction and is receiving thrombolytic therapy with an WV infusion of alteplase. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["200"]

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has been taking warfarin for 3 months. Which of the following laboratory results Indicates that the medication has been effective?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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