A nurse is about to give a client amoxicillin but discovers that the client had a rash when taking penicillin in the past. What should the nurse’s next step be?
Discuss with the provider the possibility of using a different antibiotic.
Administer the amoxicillin and keep epinephrine on hand.
Request the provider to prescribe an antihistamine.
Ask for an order for a beta-lactamase resistant drug.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Amoxicillin is a type of penicillin, and if a client has had a rash or any other allergic reaction to penicillin in the past, it’s possible they could have a similar reaction to amoxicillin. Therefore, the nurse should discuss with the provider the possibility of using a different antibiotic. This is important because allergic reactions to antibiotics can be severe and even life-threatening.
Choice B rationale
Administering the amoxicillin and keeping epinephrine on hand is not the best course of action. While epinephrine can be used to treat severe allergic reactions, it’s better to avoid the risk of an allergic reaction in the first place if possible.
Choice C rationale
Requesting the provider to prescribe an antihistamine would not address the potential for a serious allergic reaction to the amoxicillin. Antihistamines can help with mild allergic reactions, but they may not be sufficient for a severe reaction.
Choice D rationale
Asking for an order for a beta-lactamase resistant drug might not be necessary. Beta-lactamase resistant drugs are used to treat infections caused by bacteria that produce beta-lactamase, an enzyme that can break down and resist penicillins. However, the client’s allergy to penicillin does not necessarily mean that a beta-lactamase resistant drug is required.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Infusing the medication slowly over a period of 60-90 minutes is a common practice for many intravenous medications to prevent adverse reactions. However, this is not the first step a nurse should take before administering intravenous acyclovir.
Choice B rationale
While diluting certain medications in a liter of normal saline can be a part of the preparation process, it is not the first step a nurse should take before administering intravenous acyclovir.
Choice C rationale
Checking the intravenous site for any signs of redness, heat, or swelling is the correct first step before administering any intravenous medication. This is to ensure that the IV site is not infected or inflamed, which could lead to complications such as phlebitis or infiltration.
Choice D rationale
Examining the patient for any open herpetic lesions is important when administering acyclovir, as the medication is used to treat herpes infections. However, this is not the first step a nurse should take before administering the medication.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Prednisone is a corticosteroid, and one of its effects can be fluid retention, which can lead to an increase in blood pressure. Therefore, lowered blood pressure is not typically associated with prednisone use.
Choice B rationale
Abdominal distention can be a side effect of prednisone. This can occur due to fluid retention or increased appetite, both of which can be effects of prednisone.
Choice C rationale
Prednisone can actually cause an increase in blood glucose levels, not a reduction. This is because prednisone can stimulate the liver to release extra glucose and can also make body tissues less sensitive to insulin.
Choice D rationale
Weight gain, not weight loss, is a common side effect of prednisone. This can occur due to increased appetite and fluid retention.
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