A nurse is administering 4 mg of hydromorphone to a client by mouth every 4 hr. The medication is provided as hydromorphone 8 mg per tablet. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to take?
Store the remaining half of the pill in the automated medication dispensing system.
Dispose of the remaining medication while another nurse observes.
Return the remaining medication to the facility’s pharmacy.
Place the remaining half of the pill in the unit-dose package.
The Correct Answer is B
This is because hydromorphone is a controlled substance and any unused portion should be discarded in the presence of a witness. Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice A is wrong because storing the remaining half of the pill in the automated medication dispensing system could lead to errors in dosage or diversion of the drug.
Choice C is wrong because returning the remaining medication to the facility’s pharmacy is not a recommended practice for controlled substances and could also result in errors or diversion.
Choice D is wrong because placing the remaining half of the pill in the unit-dose package could compromise the integrity and stability of the medication and expose it to environmental factors.
Normal ranges for hydromorphone are not applicable as it is a synthetic opioid analgesic that does not have a therapeutic level.
However, some factors that may affect its pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics are age, weight, renal function, liver function, genetic polymorphisms, and drug interactions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider because cefuroxime is a cephalosporin antibiotic that can cause serious or life-threatening allergic reactions in people who are allergic to penicillin. The nurse should not administer cefuroxime to this client until the provider is notified and an alternative antibiotic is prescribed.
Choice A is wrong because the client has a BUN level of 18 mg/dL, which is within the normal range of 7 to 20 mg/dL.
This does not indicate any renal impairment or adverse reaction to cefuroxime.
Choice B is wrong because the client reports a history of nausea with cefuroxime, which is a common side effect of this drug.
The nurse should instruct the client to take cefuroxime with food to reduce nausea, but this is not a priority to report to the provider.
Choice D is wrong because the client takes aspirin daily, which does not interact with cefuroxime.
The nurse should monitor the client for any signs of bleeding or bruising while taking aspirin, but this is not a priority to report to the provider.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.
Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.
Naloxone IV can cause
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