A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has sinusitis and a new prescription for cefuroxime.
Which of the following client information is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
The client has a BUN level of 18 mg/dL.
The client reports a history of nausea with cefuroxime.
The client has a history of a severe penicillin allergy.
The client takes an aspirin daily.
The Correct Answer is C
This is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider because cefuroxime is a cephalosporin antibiotic that can cause serious or life-threatening allergic reactions in people who are allergic to penicillin. The nurse should not administer cefuroxime to this client until the provider is notified and an alternative antibiotic is prescribed.
Choice A is wrong because the client has a BUN level of 18 mg/dL, which is within the normal range of 7 to 20 mg/dL.
This does not indicate any renal impairment or adverse reaction to cefuroxime.
Choice B is wrong because the client reports a history of nausea with cefuroxime, which is a common side effect of this drug.
The nurse should instruct the client to take cefuroxime with food to reduce nausea, but this is not a priority to report to the provider.
Choice D is wrong because the client takes aspirin daily, which does not interact with cefuroxime.
The nurse should monitor the client for any signs of bleeding or bruising while taking aspirin, but this is not a priority to report to the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because TB is caused by a bacterium that can develop resistance to single-drug therapy, so a combination of drugs is used to prevent or treat drug-resistant strains. Some of the common drugs used for TB are isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide.
Choice A is wrong because the duration of treatment for active TB is usually 6 to 9 months, not 3 years.
Choice B is wrong because tuberculin skin tests are not reliable indicators of disease activity or response to treatment, as they can remain positive for years after successful therapy.
Choice C is wrong because blood tests to monitor kidney function are not routinely required for TB treatment unless the client has a preexisting renal impairment or is taking drugs that are nephrotoxic.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can cause hypotension as an adverse effect when administered intravenously. The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate during and after the infusion.
Choice Ais wrong because phenytoin does not cause bradycardia. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate that can result from beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin toxicity.
Choice B is wrong because red man syndrome is an adverse reaction to vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Red man syndrome is characterized by flushing, itching, and rash on the face, neck, and upper torso.
Choice Dis wrong because phenytoin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is a low blood glucose level that can result from insulin overdose, excessive exercise, or inadequate food intake.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 110 mg/dL.
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