A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has sinusitis and a new prescription for cefuroxime.
Which of the following client information is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
The client has a BUN level of 18 mg/dL.
The client reports a history of nausea with cefuroxime.
The client has a history of a severe penicillin allergy.
The client takes an aspirin daily.
The Correct Answer is C
This is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider because cefuroxime is a cephalosporin antibiotic that can cause serious or life-threatening allergic reactions in people who are allergic to penicillin. The nurse should not administer cefuroxime to this client until the provider is notified and an alternative antibiotic is prescribed.
Choice A is wrong because the client has a BUN level of 18 mg/dL, which is within the normal range of 7 to 20 mg/dL.
This does not indicate any renal impairment or adverse reaction to cefuroxime.
Choice B is wrong because the client reports a history of nausea with cefuroxime, which is a common side effect of this drug.
The nurse should instruct the client to take cefuroxime with food to reduce nausea, but this is not a priority to report to the provider.
Choice D is wrong because the client takes aspirin daily, which does not interact with cefuroxime.
The nurse should monitor the client for any signs of bleeding or bruising while taking aspirin, but this is not a priority to report to the provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
Older adults are at higher risk of adverse drug reactions due to multiple health problems, polypharmacy, and decreased renal function.
These factors can affect the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of pain medications and increase the likelihood of drug interactions, overdosage, or toxicity.
Choice A is wrong because the decreased percentage of body fat does not increase the risk of adverse drug reactions in older adults.
In fact, an increased percentage of body fat can alter the distribution and elimination of some drugs.
Choice C is wrong because an increased rate of absorption does not increase the risk of adverse drug reactions in older adults.
In fact, decreased rate of absorption can occur due to reduced gastric motility and blood flow.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A therapeutic effect of naloxone is the reversal of opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is one of the most dangerous complications of opioid overdose. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors, displacing opioids, and restoring normal respiratory drive. An increase in respiratory rate after administration indicates that naloxone is effective.
Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.
Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.
Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
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