A nurse is administering furosemide IV bolus to a client who has fluid volume excess.
The nurse should recognize which of the following findings as an indication that the medication has been effective?
Weight loss.
Decreased inflammation.
Increased blood pressure.
Decreased pain.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is A.
Weight loss.
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is used to treat fluid volume excess by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys. Weight loss is an indication that the medication has been effective in reducing the excess fluid in the body.
Choice B is wrong because decreased inflammation is not a direct effect of furosemide.
Inflammation is a response to tissue injury or infection, and furosemide does not have any anti-inflammatory properties.
Choice C is wrong because increased blood pressure is not an indication of furosemide effectiveness.
Furosemide lowers blood pressure by reducing the preload and afterload on the heart.
Increased blood pressure may indicate that the dose of furosemide is insufficient or that there are other factors contributing to hypertension.
Choice D is wrong because decreased pain is not an expected outcome of furosemide therapy.
Furosemide does not have any analgesic effects, and pain may be caused by various conditions that are not related to fluid volume excess.
Normal ranges for weight, blood pressure and pain vary depending on the individual patient’s baseline and goals.
However, some general guidelines are:
- Weight: A weight loss of 0.5 to 1 kg per day is considered safe and effective for patients with fluid volume excess.
- Blood pressure: The target blood pressure for most patients with heart failure is less than 130/80 mmHg.
- Pain: The pain level should be assessed using a valid and reliable scale, such as the numeric rating scale or the visual analogue scale, and treated according to the patient’s preference and tolerance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Tell the client, “You seem to be very upset.”.
This is an example of a therapeutic communication technique that validates the client’s feelings and encourages them to express their emotions verbally rather than physically. It also shows empathy and respect for the client’s perspective.
Choice A is wrong because engaging the panic alarm is not the first action to take when interacting with an agitated client.
The nurse should first try to calm the client down by using verbal and nonverbal communication skills, such as maintaining eye contact, speaking in a calm and clear voice, and avoiding sudden movements or gestures.
Engaging the panic alarm should be done only if the client becomes violent or poses a threat to themselves or others.
Choice B is wrong because using a face shield with a mask when providing care to the client is not relevant to the situation.
This is a personal protective equipment (PPE) that is used to prevent exposure to infectious agents or body fluids, not to manage agitation.
Using a face shield with a mask may also increase the client’s anxiety or paranoia, as they may perceive it as a sign of hostility or fear.
Choice D is wrong because initiating seclusion protocol is not appropriate for a client who is agitated, pacing, and speaking loudly.
Seclusion is a restrictive intervention that involves isolating the client in a locked room to prevent harm to themselves or others.
It should be used only as a last resort when less restrictive measures have failed or are contraindicated, and only with a provider’s order and close monitoring.
Secluding an agitated client may escalate their behavior and violate their rights.
Normal ranges for agitation are not applicable, as agitation is not a quantifiable parameter.
However, some tools that can be used to assess agitation include the Richmond AgitationSedation Scale (RASS), which ranges from -5 (unarousable) to +4 (combative), and the Agitated Behavior Scale (ABS), which ranges from 14 (no agitation) to 56 (severe agitation).
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice A.
Choice A rationale:
- Acknowledges the client's feelings:It's important for the nurse to validate the client's concerns and let them know that it's understandable to feel nervous or uncertain about ECT.
- Provides information about the treatment:The nurse can offer information about the potential benefits of ECT,but it's important not to pressure the client or make them feel like they have to go through with it.
- Reassures the client of their right to change their mind:This is a crucial aspect of informed consent.The client has the right to withdraw their consent at any time,even after signing the consent form.
Choice B rationale:
- Places undue pressure on the client:This response implies that the doctor knows what's best for the client and that the client should go through with the treatment even if they have doubts.This can undermine the client's autonomy and decision-making ability.
Choice C rationale:
- May minimize the client's concerns:While rescheduling the treatment is an option,it's important to explore the client's concerns more thoroughly before suggesting this.It's possible that the client has valid reasons for not wanting to go through with ECT,and these reasons should be addressed.
Choice D rationale:
- Is disrespectful of the client's autonomy:This response suggests that the client is obligated to go through with the treatment simply because they signed a consent form.This ignores the fact that people can change their minds and that consent is an ongoing process.
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