A nurse is admitting a client who has acute heart failure following myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse recognizes that which of the following prescriptions by the provider requires clarification?
Laboratory testing of serum potassium upon admission
Bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr
0.9% normal saline IV at 50 mL/hr continuous
Morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hr PRN pain
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason: This choice is incorrect because laboratory testing of serum potassium upon admission is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Serum potassium is an electrolyte that affects the cardiac function and rhythm. A normal serum potassium range is 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, and an abnormal level can indicate hypokalemia or hyperkalemia, which can cause arrhythmias, muscle weakness, or paralysis. Therefore, monitoring serum potassium is important to detect and correct any electrolyte imbalance and prevent complications.
Choice B Reason: This choice is incorrect because bumetanide 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hr is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that helps to reduce fluid retention and edema by increasing the urine output and sodium excretion. It may be used for clients who have heart failure, hypertension, or renal impairment, but it can cause hypokalemia, hypotension, or dehydration.
Therefore, administering bumetanide as prescribed can help to improve the cardiac output and reduce the preload and afterload.
Choice C Reason: This choice is correct because 0.9% normal saline IV at 50 mL/hr continuous is an inappropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. 0.9% normal saline is an isotonic solution that contains the same concentration of solutes as blood plasma. It may be used for clients who have fluid loss, dehydration, or shock, but it can worsen fluid overload and pulmonary edema in clients who have acute heart failure. Therefore, clarifying this prescription with the provider is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the client's condition.
Choice D Reason: This choice is incorrect because morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hr PRN pain is an appropriate prescription for a client who has acute heart failure following MI. Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that helps to relieve pain and anxiety by binding to the opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord. It may be used for clients who have moderate to severe pain, dyspnea, or chest discomfort, but it can cause respiratory depression, hypotension, or nausea. Therefore, administering morphine sulfate as prescribed can help to reduce the oxygen demand and improve the cardiac function.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is incorrect because monitoring the client's electrolyte levels is not the highest priority, as it does not address the immediate risk of airway obstruction or aspiration.
Choice B Reason: This is correct because suctioning saliva from the client's mouth is the highest priority, as it prevents airway obstruction and aspiration, which can lead to respiratory distress and infection.
Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because recording the client's intake and output is not the highest priority, as it does not address the immediate risk of airway obstruction or aspiration.
Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because performing passive range of motion on each extremity is not the highest priority, as it does not address the immediate risk of airway obstruction or aspiration.

Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Dobutamine is a positive inotropic agent that increases the contractility of the heart and improves cardiac output. This leads to increased renal perfusion and urine output, which reduces the fluid overload and edema associated with heart failure. Therefore, this choice is correct.
Choice B Reason: Dobutamine does not have a direct effect on blood glucose level. It may cause hyperglycemia as a side effect, but this is not an indication of its effectiveness. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Choice C Reason: Dobutamine may cause a slight decrease in blood pressure due to vasodilation, but this is not its main therapeutic effect. A significant decrease in blood pressure may indicate hypovolemia, hypotension, or shock, which are adverse effects of dobutamine. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Choice D Reason: Dobutamine also has a positive chronotropic effect, which means it increases the heart rate. However, this is not a desired outcome for a client with heart failure, as it increases the oxygen demand of the heart and may worsen the condition. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
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