A nurse is admitting a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and in active labor.
The client reports being positive for group B streptococcus (GBS) when screened at 36 weeks of gestation. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect to take?
Prepare for a cesarean birth.
Administer IV antibiotic prophylaxis.
Obtain a vaginal culture.
Administer metronidazole orally.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) colonization in a pregnant client does not typically necessitate a cesarean birth. The primary concern with GBS is the risk of vertical transmission to the neonate during vaginal birth, which can lead to severe neonatal infections like sepsis, meningitis, or pneumonia. Cesarean section is generally reserved for obstetric indications and does not eliminate the risk of GBS transmission if membranes rupture.
Choice B rationale
Intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis is the cornerstone of preventing neonatal GBS disease in colonized mothers. The recommended antibiotics, typically penicillin or ampicillin, are administered during labor once ruptured membranes or active labor commence. This intrapartum treatment significantly reduces bacterial colonization in the birth canal, thereby minimizing the neonate's exposure to the bacteria during passage.
Choice C rationale
A vaginal culture for GBS is typically performed between 36 and 37 weeks of gestation as part of routine prenatal screening. If the client has already been screened and identified as GBS positive at 36 weeks, repeating the culture during active labor is not indicated as the colonization status is already known, and the focus shifts to prophylaxis.
Choice D rationale
Metronidazole is an antibiotic primarily effective against anaerobic bacteria and certain parasites. It is not the drug of choice for Group B Streptococcus prophylaxis. Penicillin or ampicillin are the preferred antibiotics for GBS intrapartum prophylaxis due to their effectiveness against GBS and their favorable safety profile for both the mother and the fetus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A perineal hematoma is a collection of blood in the connective tissue beneath the skin, often caused by trauma during childbirth. The reported findings of increasing perineal pain, pressure, purplish discoloration, and swelling are classic signs. The purplish hue indicates extravasated blood, and the swelling reflects the accumulation of fluid, which can exert significant pressure on surrounding tissues, leading to severe discomfort and a palpable mass.
Choice B rationale
Retained placental fragments typically manifest as persistent or excessive postpartum bleeding, often bright red, and can lead to uterine subinvolution and infection. While pain might be present due to uterine contractions, it would not typically present as a localized, purplish, swollen area on the perineum. This finding is not consistent with the pathophysiology of retained placental fragments, which primarily affects the uterus.
Choice C rationale
A laceration is a tear in the soft tissues of the perineum or vagina, resulting in bright red bleeding, pain, and sometimes a visible opening. While pain is present, a laceration would not typically present with a 4 cm purplish discoloration and significant swelling without active, bright red bleeding from the tear site itself. The described findings are more indicative of internal bleeding and tissue accumulation rather than an open wound.
Choice D rationale
Ecchymosis is a bruise, characterized by superficial extravasation of blood into the skin or mucous membranes, resulting in a purplish discoloration. While the purplish discoloration is consistent, ecchymosis alone typically does not involve the significant palpable swelling and increasing pressure described. The extent of swelling and pressure points to a deeper collection of blood, distinguishing it from simple superficial bruising.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Tinnitus, a ringing sensation in the ears, is not a commonly reported adverse effect of nifedipine. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used to relax smooth muscle, including in the uterus and blood vessels. Its common side effects are typically related to its vasodilatory action rather than ototoxicity.
Choice B rationale
Irregular heartbeat, specifically palpitations or tachycardia, is an important adverse effect of nifedipine that warrants notifying the provider. Nifedipine can cause reflex tachycardia due to its vasodilatory effects, which can be significant in some individuals. Monitoring for and reporting changes in cardiac rhythm is crucial to ensure patient safety and appropriate management.
Choice C rationale
Hair loss, or alopecia, is not a recognized or common adverse effect associated with nifedipine therapy. The mechanism of action of nifedipine does not typically interfere with hair follicle function or growth cycles. Adverse drug reactions associated with nifedipine are generally cardiovascular or gastrointestinal in nature.
Choice D rationale
Increased salivation is not a typical or expected adverse effect of nifedipine. Common side effects of nifedipine often include dizziness, headache, flushing, peripheral edema, and nausea, primarily due to its vasodilatory properties. Changes in salivary gland function are not commonly implicated with nifedipine use.
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