A nurse is assessing a 2-year-old toddler.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Nontender, protruding abdomen.
Head circumference exceeds chest circumference.
Palpable fontanels.
Natural loss of deciduous teeth.
The Correct Answer is A
A non-tender, protruding abdomen is a normal finding for a 2- year-old toddler. This is due to the immature development of the abdominal muscles and the relatively large size of the liver and kidneys in relation to the rest of the body.
Choice B is wrong because the head circumference should be equal to or less than the chest circumference by age 2. A head circumference that exceeds the chest circumference could indicate hydrocephalus or other neurological problems.
Choice C is wrong because the fontanels, or soft spots on the skull, should be closed by the age of 18 months. Palpable fontanels could indicate dehydration, malnutrition, or congenital disorders.
Choice D is wrong because the natural loss of deciduous teeth, or baby teeth, usually begins around age 6. Premature loss of teeth could indicate dental caries, trauma, or endocrine disorders.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
The findings that require immediate follow-up are:.
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- Adult child accompanying parent reports decline in client, expressing concern over memory and thought process, appetite, and self-care. Adult child states. “My sibling and I hired help at home for my parent. We thought that would help but it has not. I found the title to the car today, signed over to me.”.
- Client makes poor eye contact, speaks in a monotone voice, and has a lack of facial expression. Client reports not wanting to eat anymore. Client’s child reports their parent has lost about 8 lb in the past month.
- Client says. "Why don’t you just leave me? I am of no use.”.
These findings suggest that the client may have cognitive impairment, depression, and/or malnutrition, which can affect their health and quality of life. The nurse should perform a comprehensive assessment of the client’s cognitive, behavioral, and functional status, review their medications and possible side effects, provide education and support for healthy aging, and collaborate with interdisciplinary teams and community resources. The nurse should also evaluate the client’s home environment and lifestyle, and consider nonpharmacological approaches to manage behavioral problems. The nurse should also monitor the client’s vital signs and weight regularly.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip. In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.
Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.
There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.
Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.
However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.
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